09 JULY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)
Q1. Consider the following statements in context of judicial appointments:
- The First Judges Case introduced the Collegium system.
- The procedure of appointment of judges to the SC and HCs is provided under
Article 124 and Article 217 respectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Explanation:
The Second Judges Case (1993) introduced the Collegium system. 1 is incorrect.
While the court has already made it clear that the
o CJI would have the final say
o the President’s recommendation was non-binding,
The court also expanded that appointments would be decided by
o the CJI and the two most-senior judges after the CJI in the SC for
appointing SC judges;
o the two most senior judges of the respective HC for appointing judges
to that particular HC.
The procedure of appointment of judges to the SC and HCs is provided
under Article 124 and Article 217 respectively. 2 is correct.
These Articles state that judges of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by
the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other
judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts as the President of India
may deem necessary.
The judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President in
consultation with the CJI, the Governor of the concerned state, and the
Chief Justice of the High Court.
Q2. The “Harmonised system of Nomenclature” is related to which of the following?
a) The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics
Code) Rules, 2021
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b) Goods and services tax
c) Draft Rules under Consumer Protection Act, 2019
d) Food Safety and Standards Rules, 2011
Solution: b)
Explanation:
An HSN code or Harmonized System Nomenclature code number is an
internationally adopted commodity description and coding system developed by the
World Customs Organization (WCO). The Indian Government has decided to adopt
the use of HSN code for the classification of goods under GST and levy of GST.
Under GST, all goods transacted in India under the purview of GST are classified
under each of the HSN code, and an appropriate GST rate is fixed for the HSN
Code. GST rates have been fixed in five slabs, namely NIL, 5%, 12%, 18%, and 28%.
Q3. Consider the following statements:
- The independence of the judiciary is a part of the basic structure of the
Constitution. - The concept of ‘basic structure’ came into existence in the landmark
judgment in Golaknath case (1967).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Explanation:
The concept of ‘basic structure’ came into existence in the landmark judgment
in Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973). 2 is incorrect.
The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include
the supremacy of the Constitution,
the rule of law,
Independence of the judiciary, ( 1 is correct)
doctrine of separation of powers,
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sovereign democratic republic,
the parliamentary system of government,
the principle of free and fair elections,
welfare state, etc.
Q4. In the context of Indian Agriculture, consider the following statements-
- India stands at the top position in the number of organic farmers in India.
- Sikkim became the first state to become fully organic in the world in 2016.
- Food Safety and Standards Authority of India regulates organic foods
imported and produced in India.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: d)
Explanation:
All statements are correct.
India ranks 1st in the number of organic farmers and 9th in terms of area under
organic farming.
Indian Scenario Regarding Organic Farming
o Sikkim became the first State in the world to become fully organic in
2016.
o North East India has traditionally been organic and the consumption
of chemicals is far less than the rest of the country.
The major organic exports from India have been flax seeds, sesame,
soybean, tea, medicinal plants, rice, and pulses.
There was an increase of nearly 50% in organic exports in 2018-19, touching
Rs. 5151 crore.
Commencement of exports from Assam, Mizoram, Manipur, and Nagaland to
the UK, USA, Eswatini, and Italy have proved the potential by increasing
volumes and expanding to new destinations as the demand for healthy
foods increases.
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FSSAI is the food regulator in the country and is also responsible for
regulating organic food in the domestic market and imports.
Q5. One-District One Product Scheme has been recently introduced to increase the
export potential of products. It was implemented by which ministry?
a) Ministry of Finance
b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
c) Ministry of Micro Small and Medium Enterprises
d) Ministry of Food Processing Industry
Solution: b)
Explanation:
One District – One Product (ODOP)
o The program aims to encourage more visibility and sale of indigenous
products/crafts, generating employment at the district level.
o The presence of aggregators is imperative to bring about economies of
scale for the small and marginal farmers.
Q6. Regarding the Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), consider the
following statements:
- It is a conditional cash transfer scheme for pregnant women and lactating
mothers of 19 years of age or above. - The scheme is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development. - The PMMVY beneficiaries are not eligible to receive cash incentives under
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Solution: c)
Explanation:
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Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY) is a maternity benefit Centrally
Sponsored Scheme.
PMMVY is a conditional cash transfer scheme for Pregnant Women and
Lactating Mothers (PW& LM) of 19 years of age or above. It meets enhanced
nutritional needs and partially compensates for wage-loss during childbirth
and childcare and provides conditions for safe delivery and good nutrition
and feeding practices.
PMMVY is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child
Development.
The eligible beneficiaries of PMMVY can also receive cash incentives under
Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY). Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
Q7. Regarding Personal Liberty in Indian Constitution, consider the following
statements-
- The right to be Forgotten is a constitutional right in India.
- The Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill has no provision for the Right to be
Forgotten. - Right to be Forgotten empowers individuals to ask organizations to delete
their personal data.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: c)
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are not correct.
Right to be forgotten (RTBF)
The Right to be forgotten (RTBF) is the right to have personal information
removed from publicly available sources, including the internet and search
engines, databases, websites, etc. once the personal information in question
is no longer necessary or relevant.
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In the pre-internet era, such information would have been practically
inaccessible after its initial publication. However, in the digital world, such
information is easily accessible.
The simple logic for the creation of this right is that a person must be able to
control his/her data by seeking its deletion.
RTBF in Europe:
RTBF has been recognized as a statutory right in the European Union (EU) under
the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) and has been upheld by some
courts in the United Kingdom and Europe.
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), is Europe’s digital privacy law passed
by the 28-member bloc (EU) in 2018.
RTBF provisions in India
There is no statutory provision in India at present that provides the right to
be forgotten.
The Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill 2019 contains a provision on the right to
be forgotten. However, the bill is yet to be passed in Parliament.
Under the PDP Bill, RTBF may be granted only after the ‘Adjudicating
Officer’ appointed under the PDP Bill approves an application made by the
individual.
Hence, the RTBF under the PDP Bill is a limited right and is subject to approval by
the Adjudicating Officer.
As per GDPR, the right to be forgotten empowers individuals to ask
organizations to delete their personal data, when it is not needed or when the
person concerned revokes (cancels) his consent. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Q8. Which of the following could be attributed to Stubble Burning on Indo-Gangetic
Plain?
- Use of Combined Harvesters.
- Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act
- High cost of Manual labor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 only
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d) 3 only
Solution: a)
Explanation:
All statements are correct.
Stubble (parali) burning is the act of setting fire to crop residue to remove them
from the field to sow the next crop.
To plant the next winter crop (Rabi crop), farmers in Haryana and Punjab
have to move in a very short interval and if they are late, they might face
considerable losses due to short winters these days. Therefore, burning is
the cheapest and fastest way to get rid of stubble.
o If parali is left in the field, pests like termites may attack the upcoming
crop.
o The precarious economic condition of farmers doesn’t allow them to
use expensive mechanized methods to remove stubble.
Reasons for Stubble burning
Mechanization (use of combine harvesters) leaves behind smaller stubble on
the ground that is difficult to collect.
Laws like the Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act which has delayed
the date for paddy transplantation.
Crop intensification leaves farmers with small windows to clear the fields so
burning the residue is the easiest.
High Cost of Manual Labour.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding World Customs Organisation-
- It is an independent intergovernmental body.
- It is the only international body to deal with competence in Custom Matters.
- It is headquartered in Paris, France.
- India never chaired the meeting of it.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
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Solution: d)
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
World Customs Organisation
The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952 as the Customs
Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental
body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of
Customs administrations.
At present, it represents 183 Customs administrations across the globe
that collectively process approximately98% of world trade.
India had become the vice-chair (regional head) of the Asia Pacific region of
the WCO for a period of two years to June 2020. Hence, statement 4 is
not correct.
It is the only international organization with competence in Customs matters
and which can rightly call itself the voice of the international Customs
community.
It has its headquarters in Brussels, Belgium. Hence, statement 3 is not
correct.
Q10. India is the second-largest producer of this crop after China. It needs fertile
clayey and loamy soil to grow. Punjab, Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, and
Rajasthan are major producers of this crop. It needs 75-100 cm rainfall and sown in
October-December Period. Recently the Bhalia variety of this crop got a Geographical
Indication Tag.
Which of the following matches the description?
a) Paddy
b) Wheat
c) Maize
d) Sugarcane
Solution: b)
Explanation:
Wheat
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Wheat is a Rabi crop. It is sown in October-December and harvested
during April-June.
Temperature: Between 10-15°C (Sowing time) and 21-26°C (Ripening &
Harvesting) with bright sunlight.
Rainfall: Around 75-100 cm.
Soil Type: Well-drained fertile loamy and clayey loamy (Ganga-Satluj
plains and black soil region of the Deccan).
Major wheat-growing states in India are Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana,
Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Bihar, and Gujarat.
o India is the second-largest producer after China.
o The success of the Green Revolution contributed to the growth of
Rabi crops, especially wheat.