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10 & 11 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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10 & 11 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

  1. To hear the voice of youth between 15 and 25 years of age, NYPF is being organized every year.
  2. It is organized by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Government of India. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
About National Youth Parliament Festival (NYPF):
• Objective: To hear the voice of youth between 18 and 25 years of age, who are allowed to vote and will join various careers in coming years, including public services. • Idea: NYPF is based on the idea given by the Prime Minister in his Mann Ki Baat Address in 2017. The first NYPF was organised in 2019 with the theme “Be the Voice of New India and Find solutions and Contribute to Policy”.
• Organized by: Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India.
o The National Service Scheme and Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangthan organizations will remain involved at different levels in its conduct and management.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q2. National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA) has been launched by
a) Ministry of Education
b) Ministry of Defence
c) Ministry of Information Technology
d) Ministry of Science and Technology

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
National Mission on Quantum Technologies & Applications (NM-QTA)
• The scheme is implemented by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Ministry of Science and Technology.
• The areas of focus for the Mission will be in fundamental science, translation, technology development, human and infrastructural resource generation, innovation and start-ups to address issues concerning national priorities.
• Objectives:
o Implementation of the mission would help develop and bring quantum computers, secured communications through fibre and free space, quantum encryption and crypt-analysis and associated technologies within reach in the country and help address India specific national and regional issues.
o The mission will help prepare next generation skilled manpower, boost translational research and also encourage entrepreneurship and start-up ecosystem development.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q3. Switching to electric vehicles from fossil fuel based vehicles will have following impacts:

  1. reduce dependence on crude oil
  2. fine-tune our infrastructure
  3. impact our foreign policy Select the correct code
    a) 1 and 2 only
    b) 2 and 3 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 & 3

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Significance of electric vehicles:
• Reducing dependence on crude oil will save the government money, reduce carbon emissions, and build domestic energy independence.
o India imported 228.6 MT of crude oil worth $120 billion in 2018–19, which made it the third-largest oil importer in the world in terms of value.
• Infrastructure: India’s transition to electric vehicles will allow us to fine-tune our infrastructure.
• Foreign policy: This will also influence India’s foreign policy as our energy security dependence will shift from West Asia to Latin America.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q4. With reference to the Thousand Islands, consider the following statements:

  1. It is part of Maldives.
  2. It consists of a string of 342 islands stretching 45 km north into the Arabian Sea. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
On 9 January 2021, a Boeing 737-500 (PK-CLC) operating Sriwijaya Air Flight 182 went missing after taking off from Jakarta Soekarno–Hatta Airport on route to Pontianak Supadio Airport. The aircraft crashed near the Thousand Islands.
• The Thousand Islands (officially Kepulauan Seribu) are a chain of islands to the north of Jakarta’s coast.
• It forms the only regency of Jakarta, the capital of Indonesia.
• It consists of a string of 342 islands stretching 45 km (28 mi) north into the Java Sea at West Jakarta Bay and in fact north of Banten Province.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q5. With reference to the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI), consider the following statements:

  1. The Reserve Bank of India recently introduced the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) for Large Value Transactions in Centralised Payment Systems.
  2. The LEI is a 20-digit number used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions worldwide.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Reserve Bank of India introduced the Legal Entity Identifier (LEI) for Large Value Transactions in Centralised Payment Systems.
• The LEI is a 20-digit number used to uniquely identify parties to financial transactions worldwide.
• It was conceived as a key measure to improve the quality and accuracy of financial data systems for better risk management post the Global Financial Crisis.
• The RBI has now decided to introduce the LEI system for all payment transactions of value Rs.50 crore and above undertaken by entities (non-individuals) using RBI-run Centralised Payment Systems viz. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) and National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT).
• The LEI has been introduced by the RBI in a phased manner for participants in the over the counter (OTC) derivative and non-derivative markets as also for large corporate borrowers.
• The RBI as the preparation for the wider introduction of LEI across all payment transactions, issued directions to the member banks.
• In India, LEI can be obtained from Legal Entity Identifier India Ltd. (LEIL), which is also recognised as an issuer of LEI by the Reserve Bank under the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q6. Which of the following state is likely to become India’s prime producer of vanadium?
a) Kerala
b) Tami Nadu
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Gujarat

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Arunachal Pradesh is likely to become India’s prime producer of vanadium.
• Vanadium is a chemical element with the symbol V and atomic number 23. It is a hard, silverygrey, malleable transition metal.
• The elemental metal is rarely found in nature. It is recovered as a by-product from the slag collected from the processing of vanadiferous magnetite ores (iron ore).
• Vanadium is a high-value metal used in strengthening steel and titanium.
• The largest deposits of vanadium of the world are in China, followed by Russia and South Africa.
• China, which produces 57% of the world’s vanadium, consumed 44% of the metal in 2017.
• India is a significant consumer of vanadium, but is not a primary producer of the strategic metal.
• According to data provided by the GSI, India consumed 4% of about 84,000 tonnes of vanadium produced across the globe in 2017.
• The Geological Survey of India (GSI) found promising concentrations of vanadium in the palaeo-proterozoic carbonaceous phyllite rocks in the Depo and Tamang areas of Papum Pare district in Arunachal Pradesh.
• This was the first report of a primary deposit of vanadium in India, with an average grade of 0.76% V2O5 [vanadium pentoxide].
• Vanadium mineralisation in Arunachal Pradesh is geologically similar to the “stone coal” vanadium deposits of China hosted in carbonaceous shale. This high vanadium content is associated with graphite, with a fixed carbon content of up to 16%.
• Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q7. With reference to the payment infrastructure development fund (PIDF) scheme introduced by RBI, consider the following statements:

  1. The scheme is intended to subsidise deployment of payment acceptance infrastructure in tier-3 to tier-6 centres, with a special focus on the north-eastern states of the country.
  2. The fund will be operational for three years effective from January 1, 2021 and may be extended for two more years.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) announced the operationalisation of the payment infrastructure development fund (PIDF) scheme.
• The scheme is intended to subsidise deployment of payment acceptance infrastructure in tier3 to tier-6 centres, with a special focus on the north-eastern states of the country.
• An advisory council (AC) under the chairmanship of RBI deputy governor BP Kanungo has been constituted for managing the PIDF.
• The fund will be operational for three years effective from January 1, 2021 and may be extended for two more years.
• The implementation of targets shall be monitored by the RBI with assistance from card networks, the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA) and the Payments Council of India (PCI).
• The PIDF presently has a corpus of Rs 345 crore, with Rs 250 crore contributed by the RBI and Rs 95 crore by the major authorised card networks in the country.
• The authorised card networks shall contribute in all Rs 100 crore.
• The card issuing banks shall also contribute to the corpus based on the card issuance volume — covering both debit and credit cards — at the rate of 1 and3 per debit and credit card issued by them, respectively.
• Besides, the PIDF shall also receive annual contributions from card networks and card issuing banks.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q8. With reference to the Risk Based Internal Audit (RBIA) Framework, consider the following statements:

  1. The Head of Internal Audit (HIA) shall be a senior executive of the bank who shall have the ability to exercise independent judgement.
  2. The HIA shall be appointed for a reasonably long period, preferably for a minimum of three years.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
RBI has issued Risk Based Internal Audit (RBIA) Framework for Strengthening Governance arrangements of banks.
To bring uniformity in approach followed by the banks, as also to align the expectations on Internal Audit Function with the best practices, banks are advised as under:
• Authority, Stature and Independence: The Head of Internal Audit (HIA) shall be a senior executive of the bank who shall have the ability to exercise independent judgement.
• Tenor for appointment of HIA: The HIA shall be appointed for a reasonably long period, preferably for a minimum of three years.
• Reporting Line: The HIA shall directly report to either the Audit Committee of the Board (ACB) / MD & CEO or Whole Time Director (WTD).
• Staff Rotation: Except for the entities where the internal audit function is a specialised function and managed by career internal auditors, the Board should prescribe a minimum period of service for staff in the Internal Audit function.
• The internal audit function shall not be outsourced. However, where required, experts, including former employees, could be hired on contractual basis subject to the ACB being assured that such expertise does not exist within the audit function of the bank.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q9. VAHAN portal, often mentioned in news, is an initiative of:
a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH)
b) Ministry of Shipping
c) Ministry of Rural Development
d) Ministry of Civil Aviation

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH) has issued a notification to facilitate the issuance of International Driving Permit (IDP) for Indian citizens whose IDP has expired while they are abroad.
• There was no mechanism for its renewal while citizens were abroad and their IDP had expired.
Now, with this amendment, it is proposed that Indian citizens can apply for renewal through
the Indian Embassies/Missions abroad, from where these applications would move to the VAHAN portal in India, to be considered by the respective RTOs.
• IDP would be couriered to the citizen at his/her address abroad by the respective RTOs.
• This notification also removes the conditions of a Medical Certificate and a valid visa at the time of making the request for the IDP in India.
• Ministry of Road Transport & Highways has set up a central depository called Vahan to store data relating to all vehicles.
• Vahan’ is the National vehicle registry, which intends to collate all the information available with road transport authorities for easy access by both citizens and regulators.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q10. Recently seen in news, Light Detection and Ranging Survey (LiDAR) technology (Aerial Ground) Survey started for:
a) Delhi-Varanasi High Speed Rail Corridor
b) Chennai Metro
c) Kochi – Trivandrum High Speed Rail Corridor
d) Delhi to Mumbai High Speed Rail Corridor

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
With the start of LiDAR (Aerial Ground) Survey, High Speed Rail work gathered momentum for Delhi – Varanasi High Speed Rail Corridor.
• The LiDAR survey for Delhi-Varanasi High Speed Rail Corridor started from Greater NOIDA where a Helicopter fitted with state of art Aerial LiDAR and Imagery sensors took the first flight and captured the data related to ground survey.
• National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited is adopting Light Detection and Ranging Survey (LiDAR) technology which provides all the ground details and data in 3-4 months wherein this process normally takes 10-12 months.
• The ground survey is a crucial activity for any linear infrastructure project as the survey provides accurate details of areas around the alignment.
• Lidar, which stands for Light Detection and Ranging, is a remote sensing method that uses light in the form of a pulsed laser to measure ranges (variable distances) to the Earth.
• These light pulses—combined with other data recorded by the airborne system— generate precise, three-dimensional information about the shape of the Earth and its surface characteristics.
• A lidar instrument principally consists of a laser, a scanner, and a specialized GPS receiver.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q11. Global Education Monitoring Report 2019 is released by
a) Annual State of Education Report
b) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
c) Ministry of Education
d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Global Education Monitoring Report 2019
• Recently, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) released its report titled – Migration, Displacement and Education: Building Bridges, not Walls.
• India specific findings:
o Literacy levels in rural households of India dip with seasonal migration. About 80% of seasonal migrant children in major cities lacked access to education near work sites.
 The construction sector absorbs the majority of short-term migrants.
o Praised Right to Education Act: Enacted in 2009, mandates local authorities to admit migrant children.
o Most interventions (taken by some State governments) are focused on keeping children in home communities instead of actively addressing the challenges faced by those who are already on the move. o The progress of out-of-school children did not improve their learning in any substantial way.
o Teachers cited culture, language, lifestyle, cleanliness and clothing as major barriers between them and the migrant labour community.
o Teacher and student absenteeism were rampant. o The growth of slums and informal settlements where schools are often scarce due to migration as a challenge.
• Recommendations: o Protect the right to education of migrants and displaced people. o Include migrants and displaced people in the national education system.
o Understand and plan to meet the education needs of migrants and displaced people. o Represent migration and displacement histories in education accurately to challenge prejudices.
o Prepare teachers to address diversity and hardship.
Support education needs of migrants and displaced people through humanitarian and development aid.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q12. With reference to the supermassive black hole, consider the following statements:

  1. Every large galaxy in the universe has a supermassive black hole at its centre, whose mass is millions or billions of times that of the Sun.
  2. The black hole at the centre of our galaxy– the Milky Way– is called Sagittarius A*, and is 26,000 light-years away from Earth.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-

A supermassive black hole, which is estimated to weigh up to 100 billion times the mass of the Sun, is seemingly missing, leaving astronomers perplexed.
• Scientists have been looking for the black hole using NASA’s Chandra X-ray Observatory and Hubble Space Telescope, and have so far found no evidence that it is anywhere to be found.
• The black hole is supposed to be located in Abell 2261, an enormous galaxy cluster that is about 2.7 billion light-years away from our planet.
• At 2.7 billion light-years away, the Abell galaxy is at an overwhelmingly large distance away from us.
• Every large galaxy in the universe has a supermassive black hole at its centre, whose mass is millions or billions of times that of the Sun.
• The black hole at the centre of our galaxy– the Milky Way– is called Sagittarius A*, and is 26,000 light-years away from Earth.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

  1. Mass slaughter of domestic poultry birds, such as chickens and ducks, to contain the spread of bird flu is called culling.
  2. In India, culling is done in a radius one kilometre from the site of infection, which is called the ‘infected zone’.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
After culling of ducks and chickens in Kerala, the Haryana government has decided to cull poultry birds in Barwala after some of them tested positive for the avian influenza.
• Mass slaughter of domestic poultry birds, such as chickens and ducks, to contain the spread of bird flu is called culling.
• During culling operations, all domestic birds in an infected area, i.e., an area in which a case of bird flu has been detected, are slaughtered and their remains buried.
• Though wild and other birds may also carry the bird flu, only domestic poultry birds are culled since they are present in close proximity with people, raising the chances of transmission of the virus to humans.
• In India, culling is done in a radius one kilometre from the site of infection, which is called the ‘infected zone’. This means all domestic birds present in commercial farms, backyard farms or live bird markets in the infected zone are culled.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q14. With reference to the Golden Quadrilateral, consider the following statements:

  1. Indian Railway recently enhanced the maximum speed to 130 kmph for 1,280 km length out of 1,612 Km in Golden Quadrilateral – Golden Diagonal (GQ-GD) route.
  2. The speed enhancement covers the entire GQ-GD route over South Central Railway. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a)1 Only
    b)2 Only
    c)Both 1 and 2
    d)Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution : a)
    Explanation :-
    Indian Railway has started the New Year by achieving a landmark achievement by drastically enhancing the maximum speed to 130 kmph for 1,280 km length out of 1,612 Km in Golden Quadrilateral – Golden Diagonal (GQ-GD) route.
    • This covers the entire GQ-GD route over South Central Railway, except Vijayawada – Duvvada section, where signalling up-gradation work is in progress.
    • The enhanced speed limits could be achieved due to the systematic and planned strengthening of track & its infrastructure by removing bottlenecks in these sections on a fast pace.
    • This included heavier rails, laying of 260 meters Long welded rail panels, improvement of curves and gradients among others.
    • Already, the maximum speed limits in the High-Density Network (HDN) between Secunderabad – Kazipet (132 Kms distance) had been enhanced to 130 kmph. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q15. With reference to the National Youth Parliament Festival – 2021, consider the following statements:

  1. The National Youth Parliament Festival is organised on 12th January on the occasion of the National Youth Day in order to encourage the youth in the age group of 18-35 years to engage with public issues and understand the common man’s point of view.
  2. National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January being the birthday of Jawaharlal Nehru. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will address the National Youth Parliament Festival – 2021 on January 12, 2021.
• The Festival is organised on 12th January on the occasion of the National Youth Day in order to encourage the youth in the age group of 18-25 years to engage with public issues and understand the common man’s point of view.
• The First National Youth Parliament Festival was organized in January-February, 2019.
• National Youth Day is celebrated on 12 January being the birthday of Swami Vivekananda.
• In 1984 the Government of India declared this day as National Youth Day and since 1985 the event is celebrated in India every year.
• Hence both statements are incorrect.

Q16. Cherry Blossom Mao Festival is celebrated in:
a)Manipur
b)Nagaland
c)Sikkim
d)Himachal Pradesh
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
In Manipur, the Cherry Blossom Mao Festival was held at Senapati district marking the beginning of pink season in the district.
• The Mao area of Senapati district in Manipur is known for Cherry Blossom, a plant which is popularly known as Sakura in Japan.
• The Manipur government started organizing the festival every year from 2017 onward.
• The festival features the picturesque landscape of Mao town adorned with beautiful Cherry Blossom flowers.
• A cherry blossom is a flower of many trees of genus Prunus.
• Prunus cerasoides, called wild Himalayan cherry, Indian wild cherry, and sour cherry, is known in Hindi as padam, pajja, or padmakashtha.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q17. With reference to the Ken-Betwa project, consider the following statements:

  1. The Ken-Betwa River linking project will benefit the dry Bundelkhand area in Rajasthan.
  2. There are 31 river interlinking projects planned in the country.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Union Jal Shakti Minister Gajendra Singh Shekhawat reviewed the Ken-Betwa project.
• The governments of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh were close to an agreement on it.
• Discussions on the project were underway between the two States since 15 years and now some minor issues are left for which there is a need for clarifications.
• The project that aims to transfer surplus water from the Ken river in MP to Betwa in UP to irrigate the drought-prone Bundelkhand region spread across the districts of two states
• The Ken-Betwa River linking project will benefit the dry Bundelkhand area in MP and UP. Besides irrigating thousands of hectares, the scheme will provide drinking water to 62 lakh people.
• there are 31 river interlinking projects planned in the country, of which Ken-Betwa is the first that has reached an advanced level of planning.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q18. With reference to the Eri silk, consider the following statements:

  1. Eri silk comes from the caterpillar of Samia ricini, found only in southern India
  2. The eri silkworm is the only completely domesticated silkworm other than Bombyx mori. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a)1 Only
    b)2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d)Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution : b)
    Explanation :-
    Assam government will provide khadi shirt, eri shawl and eri stole to Grade IV employees in a phased manner, in a move to pay tributes to Mahatma Gandhi and his movement for Khadi.
    • Eri silk comes from the caterpillar of Samia ricini, found in northeast India and some parts of China, Japan.
    • The name “eri” is derived from the Assamese word “era”, which means “castor”, as the silkworm feeds on castor plants.
    • Eri silk is also known as endi or errandi in India.
    • The woolly white silk is often referred to as the fabric of peace when it is processed without killing the silkworm. This process results in a silk called Ahimsa silk. Moths leave the cocoon and then the cocoons are harvested to be spun.
    • The eri silkworm is the only completely domesticated silkworm other than Bombyx mori.
    • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q19. With reference to the Bagasara Prant, consider the following statements:

  1. The newly created Bagasara Prant would come into effect on 26th January, which includes Bagasara and Vadiya talukas in it.
  2. Prants are traditional names for parts of historical regions, such as the original ten regions of Kathiawad on Saurashtra peninsula in Gujarat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Gujarat Chief Minister has decided to create a new Bagasara Prant in Amreli district.
• This will take the state’s revenue services nearer to the people and provide services faster.
• The newly created Bagasara Prant would come into effect on 26th January, which includes Bagasara and Vadiya talukas in it.
• Since the districts with larger geographical areas cause inconvenience to the people, the state government has been reorganizing smaller districts and talukas for administrative convenience, faster development, reducing workload as well as saving the people’s time.
• Now, the state government has taken up the reorganization of Prants.
• Prants are traditional names for parts of historical regions, such as the original ten regions of Kathiawad on Saurashtra peninsula in Gujarat:
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q20. With reference to the Freight Business Development Portal, consider the following statements:

  1. The portal is designed to replace physical processes with online ones to minimise the need of human-to-human interaction.
  2. Customers will get to know about discount schemes, diversion, rebooking, demurrage and wharfage waivers, stacking permissions through this portal.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Railway Minister Piyush Goyal launched a Freight Business Development Portal as one stop solution for all the needs of freight customers.
• The portal is designed to replace physical processes with online ones to minimise the need of human-to-human interaction.
• The personalised dashboard of freight business portal provides customers a view with their business in railways, outstanding indents, on-run consignments, status of various interactions and facility to apply for various services and raising concerns.
• Customers also get to know about discount schemes, diversion, rebooking, demurrage and wharfage waivers, stacking permissions.
• Hence both statements are correct.