15&16 JULY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)
Q1. Consider the following statements about Aadhar-
- It is a 12-digit identity number issued by the Unique Identification authority
of India.
- Any resident who has resided 152 days India regardless of caste, class,
religion, sex, gender) can avail Aadhar. - It serves as address proof anywhere in India.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: b)
Explanation:
Aadhaar
• It is a 12 digit individual identification number issued by UIDAI on behalf
of Government of India.
o UIDAI is a statutory authority established in July 2016 by the
Government of India under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology, following the provisions of
the Aadhaar Act 2016.
• It serves as identity and address proof anywhere in India. It is available
in 2 forms, physical and electronic form i.e. (e-Aadhaar).
• Any resident (a person who has resided in India for 182 days, in the one
year preceding the date of application for enrolment for Aadhaar) of India
irrespective of age, sex, class can avail it.
Q2. Which country has recently adopted UPI (Unified Payment Standards) and the
only country to issue and accept RuPay Cards and as well as accept BHIM-UPI?
a) Bhutan
b) Singapore
c) Malaysia
d) Israel
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Solution: a)
Explanation:
• Bhutan is the first country to adopt UPI standards for its Quick Response
(QR) code, and the first country in our immediate neighbourhood to accept
mobile based payments through the BHIM App.
• It is also the second country after Singapore to have BHIM-UPI
acceptance at merchant locations.
• Bhutan will also become the only country to both issue and accept RuPay
cards as well as accept BHIM-UPI.
• Bharat Interface for Money-Unified Payments Interface (BHIM-UPI):
o BHIM is developed by the National Payment Corporation of India
(NPCI).
o It is an initiative to enable fast, secure, reliable cashless payments
through the mobile phone.
o BHIM is based on Unified Payment Interface (UPI) to facilitate e-
payments directly through banks.
o It is interoperable with other Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
applications, and bank accounts.
Q3. Which of the following are the benefits of Neem Coated Urea?
- Improvement in Soil health
- Reduction in pest attack
- Negligible diversion towards non-agricultural purpose.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
Explanation:
Neem Coating of Urea:
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• The Department of Fertilizers (DoF) has made it mandatory for all the
domestic producers to produce 100% urea as Neem Coated Urea (NCU).
• The benefits of use of NCU are as under:-
o Improvement in soil health.
o Reduction in usage of plant protection chemicals.
o Reduction in pest and disease attack.
o An increase in yield of paddy, sugarcane, maize, soybean, Tur/Red
Gram.
o Negligible diversion towards non-agricultural purposes.
o Due to slow release of Nitrogen, Nitrogen Use Efficiency (NUE) of Neem
Coated Urea increases resulting in reduced consumption of NCU as
compared to normal urea.
Q4. Consider the following statements pertaining to Electronically Transmitted
Postal Ballot System (ETPBS)-
- It is a secured system with a two-layer security system. Secrecy is maintained
through the use of OTP and PIN and no duplication of casted Electronically
Transmitted Postal Ballot (ETPB) is possible due to the unique QR Code. - The entitled service voters can cast their votes electronically from outside
their constituencies as well. - There is no official definition of “Service Voters”.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Solution: a)
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
About ETPBS
It was developed for the convenience of Service voters
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It is a secured system with a two-layer security system. Secrecy is maintained
through the use of OTP and PIN and no duplication of casted Electronically
Transmitted Postal Ballot (ETPB) is possible due to the unique QR Code
The entitled service voters can cast their votes electronically from outside their
constituencies as well
ETPBS has empowered and ensured all eligible service electors with their
constitutional power to vote while performing their duty for the nation
This system has been set up in line with the existing Postal Ballot System and is
an easier option for facilitating voting by the electors as the time constraint for
dispatch of the postal ballot has been addressed using this system
ETPBS was developed and is managed by the Election Commission of India. To
know more about ECI and Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, candidates can
visit the linked article.
Who is a Service Voter?
Persons working in Central Forces under Arms Act and Government officials
deployed in Embassies outside the country are classified as Service Voters and are
provisioned for online enrolment. Statement 3 is not correct.
Features of ETPBS
• Given below are the key features of the Electronically Transmitted Postal
Ballot System:
• Service voters can avail of the ETPBS service from anywhere outside their
constituency
• System facilitates the creation of service voter electoral roll data
• It is easy, efficient and hassle-free
• It is a secure system, having two-layer security
• OTP is required to download an encrypted Electronically Transmitted Postal
Ballot file
• Secrecy is maintained and no duplicacy is possible due to the QR code
• A PIN is required to decrypt, print and deliver ETPB
Q5. “Karman Line” has been repeatedly appeared in news is related to-
a) India and Pakistan border
b) International Boundary between Pacific Ocean and Atlantic Ocean
c) Accepted boundary of Space
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d) Turkey and Egypt border
Solution: c)
Explanation:
• The most widely accepted boundary of space is known as the Karman Line
The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (FAI) defines Karman Line as the
altitude of 100 kilometres above Earth’s mean sea level.
• FAI is the world governing body for air sports, and also stewards definitions
regarding human spaceflight.
• The Kármán line has been compared to international waters, as there are no
national boundaries and human laws in force beyond the line.
• It is named after Theodore von Karman (1881–1963), a Hungarian
American engineer and physicist, who was active primarily in aeronautics
and astronautics.
Q6. Consider the following statements-
- Helium is a colourless, odourless and tasteless gas.
- It’s boiling point is lowest among all elements.
- It was discovered on earth in the 19th century.
Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution: d)
Explanation:
Helium
• It is a chemical element with the symbol He and atomic number 2. The
British chemist Sir William Ramsay discovered the existence of helium on
Earth in 1895.
• It is a colourless, odourless, tasteless, non-toxic, inert, monatomic
gas, the first in the noble gas group in the periodic table.
• Its boiling point is the lowest among all the elements.
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Electrons
• Matter is made up of atoms, which are the basic units of chemical elements
such as hydrogen, helium or oxygen.
• Atoms are made up of three particles: Protons, Neutrons and Electrons.
• Hence, electrons are the subatomic particles that orbit the nucleus of
an atom. They are generally negative in charge and are much smaller
than the nucleus of the atom.
Q7. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Climate Smart Cities
Assessment Framework (CSCAF)?
- It is launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
- It intends to inculcate a climate sensitive approach in urban planning.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: b)
Explanation:
The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs has launched the Climate Smart Cities
Assessment Framework (CSCAF) 2.0, along with the ‘Streets for People Challenge’
under the Smart Cities Mission. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
CSCAF 2.0:
Objective: To provide a clear roadmap for cities towards combating Climate Change
while planning and implementing their actions, including investments.
CSCAF initiative intends to inculcate a climate-sensitive approach to urban
planning and development in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Framework: It has 28 indicators across five categories namely.
Energy and Green Buildings,
Urban Planning, Green Cover & Biodiversity,
Mobility and Air Quality,
Water Management and
Waste Management.
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Implementing Agency: The Climate Centre for Cities under National Institute of
Urban Affairs (NIUA) is supporting MoHUA in implementation of CSCAF.
Q8. Arrange the following in chronological order beginning with the earliest:
- Establishment of the Hitler’s dictatorship
- Reichstag fire
- World War II
Select the correct code:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 1
c) 3, 2 and 1
d) 2, 1 and 3
Solution: d)
Explanation:
• Reichstag fire, burning of the Reichstag (parliament) building in Berlin on
the night of February 27, 1933 was a key event in the establishment of
the Nazi dictatorship.
• On February 28, 1933, the day after the fire, Hitler’s dictatorship
began with the enactment of a decree “for the Protection of the People and
the State,”.
• On September 1, 1939, Hitler invaded Poland from the west; two days later,
France and Britain declared war on Germany, beginning World War II. On
September 17, Soviet troops invaded Poland from the east.
Q9. Consider the following statements about PRASHAD Scheme:
- It was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Development.
- It is a Central Sector Scheme fully financed by the Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: b)
Explanation:
The ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage
Augmentation Drive’ (PRASHAD) is a Central Sector Scheme fully financed by
the Government of India. 2 is correct.
• It was launched by the Ministry of Tourism in the year 2014-15. 1 is
incorrect.
• Earlier it was known as the ‘National Mission on Pilgrimage Rejuvenation
and Spiritual Augmentation Drive’ (PRASAD).
• After the discontinuation of the HRIDAY scheme of the Ministry of Housing
and Urban Development, the development of Heritage destinations was
included in the PRASAD Scheme, changing it to PRASHAD.
Objectives:
• Integrated development of identified pilgrimage and heritage
destinations.
• Infrastructure development such as entry points (Road, Rail and Water
Transport),
• Last mile connectivity,
• Basic tourism facilities like Information/ Interpretation Centers, ATM/
Money exchange
Implementation Agency: The projects identified under this scheme shall be
implemented through the identified agencies by the respective State/ Union
Territory Government.
• Centrally Sponsored Schemes are those that are funded directly by the
central ministries/ departments and implemented by states or their
agencies.
o This assistance is deliberately in areas that are State subjects, with
the centre wishing to motivate the States to take up such programs.
• Additional Central Assistance (ACA) linked schemes provide central
assistance to the states for the state plan schemes.
o This assistance is meant for special programs as per the needs of the
State, sectoral priorities and cover subjects not on the union list.
o The ACA linked schemes are funded by the ministry of finance and
administered by the sectoral ministry concerned.
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• Central Sector Schemes are those that are implemented by a central
agency and 100% funded by the center on subjects within the union list.
Q10. Consider the following statements about tribunals:
- Tribunals can be formed only through the Parliament and not the State
Legislatures. - Article 323A is only for tribunals for public service matters.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Explanation:
Tribunals were not part of the original constitution, it was incorporated in the
Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
• Article 323-A deals with Administrative Tribunals.
• Article 323-B deals with tribunals for other matters.
Article 323 B empowers the state legislatures to set up tribunals for various matters
like levy, assessment, collection and enforcement of any of the tax matters
connected with land reforms covered by Article 31A. 1 is incorrect.
While Article 323 A contemplates the establishment of tribunals for public service
matters only, Article 323 B contemplates the establishment of tribunals for certain
other matters. 2 is correct.
Q11. Consider the following statements:
- Ultraviolet (UV) rays cover a wavelength range of 100-400 nm.
- UV-A and UV-C rays from the Sun are transmitted through our atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Solution: a)
Explanation:
Ultraviolet (UV) is a type of light or radiation naturally emitted by the Sun.
• It covers a wavelength range of 100-400 nm. 1 is correct.
• The human visible light ranges from 380–700 nm.
• Types of UV bands and their effect on humans:
o UV-C (100-280 nm),
▪ UV-C radiation from man-made sources has been known to
cause skin burns and eye injuries.
o UV-B (280-315 nm) and
▪ UV-B rays can only reach the outer layer of our skin or epidermis
and can cause sunburns and are also associated with skin
cancer.
o UV-A (315-400 nm).
▪ UV-A rays can penetrate the middle layer of your skin or the
dermis and can cause ageing of skin cells and indirect
damage to cells’ DNA.
UV-A and UV-B rays from the Sun are transmitted through our atmosphere and
all UV-C is filtered by the ozone layer. 2 is incorrect.
Q12. Consider the following statements:
- Article 311 of the Constitution deals with dismissal of Union ministers.
- Article 342A empowers the President to specify socially and educationally
backward classes in various states and union territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution: a)
Explanation:
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Article 311 of the Constitution deals with ‘Dismissal, removal or reduction in rank
of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State’. 1 is incorrect.
• Under Article 311(2), no civil servant can be “dismissed or removed or
reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which he has been informed of the
charges and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those
charges’’.
• Article 311 (2)(b): It states “when an authority empowered to dismiss or
remove a person or to reduce him in rank is satisfied that for some reason,
to be recorded by that authority in writing, it is not reasonably practicable to
hold such enquiry”.
Article 342A empowers the President to specify socially and educationally
backward classes in various states and union territories.
• He can do this in consultation with the Governor of the concerned State.
• However, the law enacted by Parliament will be required if the list of
backward classes is to be amended.