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17 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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17 AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. It is a small, nocturnal primate. It usually travels from the canopy of one tree to
another. But, at times, it also comes down to bushes at the ground level to feed. It is
commonly found in the tropical scrub and deciduous forests as well as the dense
hedgerow plantations bordering farmlands of Southern India and Sri Lanka. It has
been listed as ‘Endangered’ by the International Union for the Conservation of
Nature.
Identify the species described above from the following options
a) The bonnet monkey
b) Golden Langurs
c) Slender Loris
d) Indian rhesus macaque
Solution: c)
Explanation:
Slender loris
 The Slender Loris is a small, nocturnal primate.It usually travels from the
canopy of one tree to another. But, at times, it also comes down to bushes
at the ground level to feed.
 They are fond of lantana berries and also eat insects, lizards, small birds,
tree frogs, tender leaves and buds.
 Habitat: Commonly found in the tropical scrub and deciduous forests as
well as the dense hedgerow plantations bordering farmlands of Southern
India and Sri Lanka.
 Conservation status: The slender loris has been listed as ‘Endangered’ by
the International Union for the Conservation of Nature.
o It has been brought under Schedule I of the Wild Life (Protection) Act,
1972 in order to provide the highest level of legal protection.
 Threats: As it is believed that these animals have some medicinal properties,
they are captured and sold. Since there is great demand for keeping these
animal as pets, they are illegally smuggled.
o Habitat loss, electrocution of live wires and road accidents are other
threats that have caused its populations to dwindle.
Q2. Consider the following statements in context of ‘third party funding in
arbitration’:
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  1. Third party funding in arbitration is banned in India.
  2. This form of financing improves access to justice.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Third party funding in arbitration
    Third party funding in arbitration, or litigation funding, is a concept where an
    unrelated party to a dispute finances the legal cost of one of the parties.
     Third party funding is where someone who is not involved in an
    arbitration provides funds to a party to that arbitration in exchange for
    an agreed return.
     Typically, the funding will cover the funded party’s legal fees and expenses
    incurred in the arbitration.
     The funder may also agree to pay the other side’s costs and provide security
    for the opponent’s costs if the funded party is so ordered.
    Benefits
     It is believed that this form of financing improves access to justice by
    providing advance funding and support against a lengthy and expensive
    litigation process.2 is correct.
     It also helps businesses manage their litigation risks in a better manner.
    This risk can be managed because the third party may conduct an additional
    analysis of the case, ensuring deeper assessment of its outcome.
    Indian scenario
     The concept of third party funding is statutorily recognized in civil suits
    under the Civil Code of Procedure in states such as Maharashtra, Gujarat,
    Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. 1 is incorrect.
    o This consent to third-party funding can be adduced from the Civil
    Procedure Code 1908, which governs civil court procedure in
    India.
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    o “Non-lawyer third party funding” is lawfully admissible in India. In
    order to streamline the process in India, we are seeing the advent of
    organisations such as the Indian Association for Litigation Finance.
    Q3. In context of Arbitration and Conciliation (amendment) Act 2019 recently seen
    in the news, consider the following statements:
  3. For international commercial arbitration, appointments will be made by the
    institution designated by the High Court
  4. The arbitral tribunals have to give award within a period of twelve months
    months for international commercial arbitrations.
    Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Under the earlier act, parties were free to appoint arbitrators. In case of
    disagreement on an appointment, the parties could request the Supreme Court, or
    the concerned High Court, or any person or institution designated by such Court,
    to appoint an arbitrator. However now under the new Arbitration and Conciliation
    (amendment) Act 2019, the Supreme Court and High Courts may now designate
    arbitral institutions, which parties can approach for the appointment of
    arbitrators. 1 is incorrect.
    Under the Act, arbitral tribunals are required to make their award within a period
    of 12 months for all arbitration proceedings. The Bill seeks to remove this time
    restriction for international commercial arbitrations. It adds that tribunals must
    endeavour to dispose off international arbitration matters within 12 months.
    2 is incorrect.
    Q4. With reference to the Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS), consider
    the following statements:
  5. The Scheme aims at setting up of Greenfield Defence Testing Infrastructure
    required for defence and aerospace related production.
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  6. Under the scheme, 75% of the project cost will be borne by the Special Purpose
    Vehicle (SPV) which constitutes the Indian private entities and State
    governments.
  7. The remaining 25% will be provided through Government funding in the form
    of ‘Grant-in-Aid’.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 and 3 only
    c) 1 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Defence Testing Infrastructure Scheme (DTIS)
     It aims to give a boost to domestic defence and aerospace manufacturing.
     It has an outlay of Rs 400 crore for creating state of the art testing
    infrastructure for defence testing sector.
     It envisages to set-up six to eight new test facilities in partnership with private
    industry.
     This will facilitate indigenous defence production, consequently reduce imports
    of military equipment and help make the country self-reliant.
     The projects under the Scheme will be provided with up to 75% government
    funding in the form of ‘Grant-in-Aid’.
     The remaining 25% of the project cost will have to be borne by the Special
    Purpose Vehicle (SPV) whose constituents will be Indian private entities and
    State Governments.
     The SPVs under the Scheme will be registered under Companies Act 2013 and
    shall also operate and maintain all assets under the Scheme, in a selfsustainable manner by collecting user charges.
    Q5. In the administrative records of the British East India Company, “Koots” refers
    to?
    a) A Peasant uprising
    b) A form of Land tax
    c) A title given to Indians
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    d) Right to trade duty free
    Solution: a)
    Explanation:
    Koots
     These are peasant uprisings that broke out in South Kanara District during
    1830-31.
     The uprising broke out against the East India Company in the coastal belt
    reached the stage of an armed struggle in 1837.
     The revolt by peasants was not related to the freedom movement, though, but
    against the high land revenue (tax) assessment and the absence of a lucrative
    market for farm produce.
     But it did motivate people to join the freedom movement after 1850, say
    researchers.
     The peasants were mainly agitated over the company for introducing a system
    that mandated that taxes should be paid only in cash and not in kind.
    Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to Visceral Leishmaniasis
  8. It is a complex infectious disease transmitted by the bite of female Anopheles
    Mosquito.
  9. It is a neglected tropical disease that affects millions annually, making it the
    second most common parasitic killer after malaria.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    Strategy for Visceral Leishmaniasis
     Indian researchers have developed a non-invasive, easy to administer, costeffective, and patient compliant potential therapeutic strategy against Visceral
    Leishmaniasis.
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     The conventional treatment therapy of VL mainly involves painful intravenous
    administration, which imposes many treatment complications, including
    prolonged hospitalization, high cost, and high risk of infection.
     Their strategy based on nano carrier-based oral drugs coated with Vitamin
    B12 enhanced oral bioavailability and efficacy of the therapy by more than
    90%.
    Visceral Leishmaniasis
     Leishmaniasis is caused by protozoan parasites which are transmitted by the
    bite of infected female phlebotomine sandflies.
     There are 3 main forms of leishmaniases:
  10. Visceral (also known as kala-azar which is the most serious form of the disease)
  11. Cutaneous (the most common), and
  12. Mucocutaneous
     Visceral Leishmaniasis is a neglected tropical disease that affects millions
    annually, making it the second most common parasitic killer after malaria.
     The disease affects some of the poorest people and is associated with
    malnutrition, population displacement, poor housing, a weak immune system
    and lack of financial resources.
     Leishmaniasis is also linked to environmental changes such as deforestation,
    building of dams, irrigation schemes and urbanization.
    Q7. The Arctic is warming twice as fast as the rest of the globe. This warming
    differential between the poles and the tropics is known as?
    a) Arctic Polarisation
    b) Arctic Sublimation
    c) Arctic Amplification
    d) Arctic Differentiation
    Solution: c)
    Explanation:
    Arctic Warming
     The Arctic is warming twice as fast as the rest of the world.
     The rapid Arctic warming is referred to as Arctic Amplification.
     Researchers suggests that it may be blamed for some of the extreme weather
    episodes.
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    Arctic Amplification
     It occurs whenever there is any change in the net radiation balance of Earth,
    and this produces a larger change in temperature near the poles than the
    global average.
     It is typically measured as the ratio of polar warming to tropical warming.
     This amplification is primarily caused by melting ice – a process that is
    increasing in the Arctic at a rate of 13% per decade.
     Ice is more reflective and less absorbent of sunlight than land or the surface of
    an ocean.
     When ice melts, it typically reveals darker areas of land or sea, and this results
    in increased sunlight absorption and associated warming.
    Effects of Arctic warming
     One of the most significant effects of Arctic amplification is the weakening of
    west-to-east jet streams in the northern hemisphere.
     As the Arctic warms at a faster rate than the tropics, this results in a weaker
    atmospheric pressure gradient and hence lower wind speeds.
    Q8. ‘IndiGau’, sometimes seen in the news recently, refers to?
    a) Indigenously developed vaccine for cattles
    b) Cattle genomic chip for preserving indigenous breeds
    c) Animal health card issued under the National Mission for Bovine productivity
    d) A web portal to boost dairy productivity in India by organizing the livestock
    market
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    IndiGau
     It is purely indigenous and the largest cattle chip of the world.
     It is a great example of self-reliant India.
     This chip will have practical utility in the Governments schemes to achieve
    the goal of conservation of our own breeds with better characters and help
    towards doubling of farmers’ income by 2022.
    Q9. Match the following:
    Indigeneous breeds – States
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  13. Ongole – a. Punjab
  14. Kangayam – b. Gujarat
  15. Sahiwal – c. Tamil Nadu
  16. Kankrej – d. Andhra Pradesh
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    a) 1-c; 2-d; 3-b; 4-a
    b) 1-d; 2-c; 3-b; 4-a
    c) 1-a; 2-b; 3-c; 4-d
    d) 1-d; 2-c; 3-a; 4-b
    Solution: d)
    Explanation:
    Kankrej
     It is otherwise called as Wadad or Waged, Wadhiar.
     Originated from Southeast Rann of Kutch of Gujarat and adjoining Rajasthan
    (Barmer and Jodhpur district).
     Kankrej is valued for fast, powerful, draught cattle.
     Useful in ploughing and carting.
     The cows are good milkers, yielding about 1360 kgs.
    Sahiwal
     This breed otherwise known as Lola (loose skin), Lambi Bar, Montgomery,
    Multani, Teli.
     Originated in Montgomery district in present Pakistan and Indian states of
    Punjab, Haryana, & Rajasthan.
     The average milk yield of this breed is between 2,725 and 3,175 kgs in lactation
    period of 300 days.
    Ongole
     Otherwise known as Nellore.
     Home tract is Ongole taluk in Gantur district of Andhra Pradesh.
     Average milk yield is 1000 kgs. Age at first calving is 38-45 months with an
    intercalving period of 470 days.
    Kangayam
     Originated in Kangayam, Dharapuram, Perundurai, Erode, Bhavani and part
    of Gobichettipalayam taluk of Erode and Coimbatore district.
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     The Kangayam breed was developed by the efforts of the late Pattogar of
    Palayakottai, Sri N. Nallathambi Sarkari Manradiar.
    Q10. With respect to Jajmani System, consider the following statements:
  17. It is a share cropping system followed by Jotedars, where sharecroppers
    handed over half of the crops to the Jotedars, post harvesting.
  18. Ganadevata, a novel written by Tarashankar Bando-padhyay, portrayed the
    decline of the Jajmani system.
    Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Solution: b)
    Explanation:
    The Jajmani System
     In areas where the use of money had not been introduced, service
    relationships and exchanges in kind may have existed.
     It is likely that the jajmani system evolved from these service relations.
     In many parts of India the jajmani system defined most of the transactions
    in the craft sector.
     Jajmani System is a reciprocal arrangement between craft-producing castes
    and the wider village community, for the supply of goods and services.
     The caste system did not permit the upper castes to practise certain
    occupations.
     As a result the patrons or Jajman were dependent on purjans (cultivators,
    craftsmen, barbers, washermen, cobblers, sweepers, etc.) to provide essential
    goods and services for the village/urban economy.
     In return a fixed payment in kind was assured.
     This could be rent-free land, residence sites, credit facilities, food or even
    dung!
     Since most upper-caste people owned land, the jajmani system provided
    them with a stable supply of labour.
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     Today this system still holds sway over several parts of the country, though
    colonialism, competition, better communications and improved civil laws
    have all transformed it in their own ways.