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19-22 FEB CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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19-22 FEB CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements about presumptive land titling:

  1. Ownership of land is established on the basis of current possession.
  2. Registration of land is actually a registration of transactions.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2.
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
In India, land ownership is determined through various records such as sale deeds that are registered, property tax documents, government survey records, etc. India currently follows a system of presumptive land titling.
• In this system, the land records are maintained, with information on possession, which is determined through details of past transactions.
• Ownership, then, is established on the basis of current possession.
• Registration of land is actually a registration of transactions, such as sale deeds, records of inheritance, mortgage and lease.
• Holding registration papers does not actually involve the government or the legal framework guaranteeing the ownership title of the land.

Q2. Consider the following statements about Mars’s atmosphere:

  1. It is composed primarily of carbon dioxide (about 96 percent).
  2. The atmosphere is very thick.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Mars’ atmosphere:
• It is composed primarily of carbon dioxide (about 96 percent), with minor amounts of other gases such as argon and nitrogen.
• The atmosphere is very thin, however, and the atmospheric pressure at the surface of Mars is only about 0.6 percent of Earth’s (101,000 pascals).
• The primary reason for Mars’ atmospheric loss is the solar wind.

Q3. Jezero Crater is in the news. It is a) A crater on Moon
b) A crater made by deep impact of asteroids on earth
c) A crater on Mars
d) A trench in Pacific Ocean

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
NASA’s Mars 2020 Perseverance Rover landed on the Jezero Crater in Mars on February 18, to much celebration. The crater was chosen for study as based on an earlier aerial survey, it was found to be home to an ancient delta. Clay minerals and carbonates were seen, making the crater a good place to search for life’s existence

Q4. Consider the following statements about NASA’s Mars 2020 Perseverance Rover:

  1. The rover carries a rocket named Ingenuity.
  2. Mars Fetch Rover is provided by NASA. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Perseverance is the most advanced, most expensive and most sophisticated mobile laboratory sent to Mars.
• Different from previous missions: The rover introduces a drill that can collect core samples of the most promising rocks and soils and set them aside in a “cache” on the surface of Mars.
• Duration: It is expected to last at least the duration of one Mars year, or about 687 earth days.
• Launch: 30th July, 2020
• Landing: 18th February, 2021
• Landing site: Jezero Crater in Mars
• The rover also carries a helicopter named Ingenuity that is specially designed to fly in Mars’s thin atmosphere; its sole purpose would be to demonstrate flight on Mars.
• Mars Fetch Rover (provided by the European Space Agency) will land, drive, and collect all samples from the different locations, and return to the lander.

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to the Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP)

  1. It was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India in 2005.
  2. Under UIP free of cost vaccination is provided against twelve vaccine preventable diseases.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Universal Immunisation Programme (UIP):
• Launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India in 1985, UIP prevents mortality and morbidity in children and pregnant women against 12 vaccine preventable diseases.
• Under UIP free of cost vaccination is provided against twelve vaccine preventable diseases i.e. Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Hepatitis B, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to the Mission
Indradhanush

  1. It was launched in 2014 to give maximum protection to the children against Vaccine Preventable Diseases (VPDs).
  2. Mission Indradhanush is a successful strategy to reach out to every dropped out and left out child and pregnant woman.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Mission Indradhanush:
• In order to give maximum protection to the children against Vaccine Preventable Diseases (VPDs), the Government of India has launched ‘Mission Indradhanush’ in December 2014 to increase full immunization coverage in India to at least 90% children by December 2018.
• Mission Indradhanush is a successful strategy to reach out to every dropped out and left out child and pregnant woman.
• Mission Indradhanush provides vaccination against 7 diseases: diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles and hepatitis B.
• In addition, vaccination against Japanese Encephalitis and
Haemophilus influenzae type B is being provided in selected districts of the country. Vaccination against tetanus is also provided to the pregnant women.

Q7. Consider the following statements with respect to the Circular Economy

  1. It minimises the use of resource inputs and the creation of waste, pollution and carbon emissions.
  2. It aims to keep products, equipment and infrastructure in use for longer, thus improving the productivity of these resources.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About Circular Economy:
• A circular economy is an economic system aimed at eliminating waste and the continual use of resources.
o It is a regenerative approach, which is in contrast to the traditional linear economy, which has a “take, make, dispose” model of production.
o Here, products are designed for durability, reuse and recyclability and thus almost everything gets reused, remanufactured, and recycled into a raw material or used as a source of energy.
o Circular systems employ reuse, sharing, repair, refurbishment, remanufacturing and recycling to create a closed-loop system.
• Significance:
o Minimize waste: It minimises the use of resource inputs and the creation of waste, pollution and carbon emissions.
o Improve productivity: It aims to keep products, equipment and infrastructure in use for longer, thus improving the productivity of these resources.

Q8. Consider the following statements with respect to the Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES)

  1. It is a severe case of encephalitis transmitted by mosquitoes and is characterized by high fever and inflammation of the brain.
  2. The disease most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.
  3. It is a vaccine-preventable disease. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 3 Only
    b) 1 and 2
    c) All of the above
    d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About Acute Encephalitis Syndrome (AES):
• It is a severe case of encephalitis transmitted by mosquitoes and is characterized by high fever and inflammation of the brain.
o The World Health Organisation (WHO) in 2006, coined the term AES to signify a group of diseases which seem similar to one another but are difficult to differentiate in the chaotic environment of an outbreak.
• Most vulnerable: The disease most commonly affects children and young adults and can lead to considerable morbidity and mortality.
• Cause: Viruses are the main causative agents, although other sources such as bacteria, fungi, parasites, spirochetes, chemicals, toxins and noninfectious have also been reported over the past few decades.
• Vaccine: It is not vaccine-preventable.

Q9. Consider the following statements:

  1. Sikh Gurdwara Act in 1925 established the Mahant control of Gurdwaras.
  2. The Nankana Sahib shrine was constructed by Maharaja Ranjit Singh. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About Nankana Sahib
• Nankana Sahib is a city in Pakistan’s Punjab province, where Gurdwara Janam Asthan (also called Nankana Sahib
Gurdwara) is located.
• The shrine is built over the site where Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism, was believed to be born in 1469.
• The city was previously known as Talwandi.
• The Janam Asthan shrine was constructed by Maharaja Ranjit Singh, after he visited Nankana Sahib in 1818-19 while returning from the Battle of Multan.
• The passing of the Sikh Gurdwara Act in 1925 ended the Mahant control of Gurdwaras. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q10. Gurudwara reform movement is associated with: a) Gurudwara Janam Sthan
b) Amritsar Golden Temple
c) Patna Sahib
d) Shishganj Gurudwara

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Gurudwara reform movement
• The Shiromani Gurdwara Parbandhak Committee (SGPC) came to existence in November 1920, a month after Sikhs removed partial restrictions on Dalit rights inside Golden Temple in Amritsar.
• It started a gurdwara reform movement which was aimed at taking possession of historical Sikh Gurdwaras, which had turned into personal property of the priests, who were called mahants.
• These mahants were also accused of running practices from gurdwaras which were not approved in Sikhism.
• During British rule, the Gurdwara Janam Asthan was the site of a violent episode when in 1921, over 130 Akali Sikhs were killed after they were attacked by the Mahant of the shrine.

Q11. Australia’s Prime Minister Scott Morrison has spoken to Indian Prime Minister on Australia’s media platform bill. Consider the following statements:

  1. In India news aggregators are not mandated to make payments to publishers.
  2. India is the largest online news consuming nation in the world.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
India is the second largest online news consuming nation after China. It has 282 million unique visitors,
• In India, digital advertising spends in 2019 grew 24% year-on-year to Rs 27,900 crore.
• They are expected to grow to Rs 51,340 crore by 2022.
• In India news aggregators are not mandated to make payments to publishers.
• Dailyhunt and InShorts are the other major news aggregators in
India.
• Publishers were initially paid Rs 5-6 lakh monthly for content hosted on Dailyhunt but they started to go off the platform after these terms were changed.
• Startups such as Dailyhunt and InShorts are yet to find a sustainable revenue model.

Q12. News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code Bill 2020 is in the news. It is related to: a) Facebook
b) Social media platforms which share news
c) Search engines
d) All of the above

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The proposed law, News Media and Digital Platforms Mandatory Bargaining Code Bill 2020, mandates a bargaining code that aims to force Google and Facebook to compensate media companies for using their content.
• Issue between major digital platforms and media businesses:
o It envisaged limiting tech platforms from introducing algorithm changes that affected how a particular publisher’s news is consumed, and notifying these changes to the publishers.
o The provision requires Google and Facebook to enter into payment negotiations with media companies.
o This opens up the possibility of disrupting the level playing field between small and large news organisations.

Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to the recently launched Draft Blue Economy policy for India

  1. It was launched by the Ministry of Earth Science, government of India, to enhance contribution of the blue economy to India’s GDP.
  2. The prepared draft is in line with the Government of India’s Vision of New India by 2030.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About the draft blue economy policy document:
• Released by: Ministry of Earth Science, government of India.
o The prepared draft is in line with the Government of India’s Vision of New India by 2030. o It highlighted the blue economy as one of the ten core dimensions for national growth.
• Objectives:
o To enhance contribution of the blue economy to India’s GDP
o Improve lives of coastal communities o Preserve marine biodiversity
o Maintain the national security of marine areas and resources

Q14. Consider the following statements with respect to the delimitation of Lok Sabha and Assembly seats in India

  1. The objective of the delimitation is to provide equal representation for equal population segments, and a fair division of geographical areas, so that no political party has an advantage.
  2. The Indian constitution provides for the enactment of a Delimitation Act after every Census by the parliament. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About delimitation:
• Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly seats to represent changes in population. o In this process, the number of seats allocated to a state may also change.
• The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments, and a fair division of geographical areas, so that no political party has an advantage.
• Constitutional provisions:
o Article 82: It provides for the enactment of a Delimitation Act after every Census by the parliament.
o Article 170: The States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every Census.
• The Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission once the Act is in force.
• For the present delimitation exercise, the population figures of the 2011 census shall be taken as the basis.
• The orders of the commission:
o Have the force of law and they cannot be challenged before any court.
o Enforcement of commission’s order is undertaken as per the date specified by the President of India.
 The copies of these orders are laid before the Lok Sabha or the concerned Legislative Assembly and no modifications are permitted

Q15. Consider the following statements with respect to the Delimitation
Commission

  1. The Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission once the Delimitation Act is in force.
  2. The orders of the commission have the force of law and they can be challenged before any court.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
About delimitation:
• Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly seats to represent changes in population. o In this process, the number of seats allocated to a state may also change.
• The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments, and a fair division of geographical areas, so that no political party has an advantage.
• Constitutional provisions:
o Article 82: It provides for the enactment of a Delimitation Act after every Census by the parliament.
o Article 170: The States also get divided into territorial constituencies as per Delimitation Act after every Census.
• The Union government sets up a Delimitation Commission once the
Act is in force.
• For the present delimitation exercise, the population figures of the 2011 census shall be taken as the basis.
• The orders of the commission:
o Have the force of law and they cannot be challenged before any court.
o Enforcement of commission’s order is undertaken as per the date specified by the President of India.
 The copies of these orders are laid before the Lok Sabha or the concerned Legislative Assembly and no modifications are permitted.

Q16. ‘Nurturing Neighbourhoods Challenge’, recently in news, was launched
a) Under the Smart Cities Mission to incorporate early childhood development into the planning and management of Indian cities.
b) As part of the Ministry of External Affairs attempt to improve India’s relation with its neighbour countries.
c) To develop Urban Forests in Indian cities
d) None of the above

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Recently, the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, announced 25 shortlisted cities for the ‘Nurturing Neighbourhoods Challenge’ cohort.
About the Challenge:
• Launched in 2020: The challenge invited participation from all Smart Cities, capitals of States and UTs, and other cities with population above 5 lakhs were eligible to participate.
• A 3-year initiative: Aimed at supporting early childhood-friendly neighbourhoods under the government’s Smart Cities Mission.
o Over the 3-year initiative, selected cities will receive technical support and capacity-building to develop, pilot and scale solutions that enhance the quality of life of young children.
• Prime objective of inclusive development: The Government of India is committed to enhancing opportunities in urban areas for all vulnerable citizens, especially young children.
• Significance: The challenge will help in incorporating early childhood development into the planning and management of Indian cities.

Q17. Consider the following statements about Quad?

  1. It is an informal strategic forum between the United States, Japan, Australia and India.
  2. It has a shared objective of ensuring a free, open and prosperous Arctic region.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)
• It is an informal strategic forum between the United States, Japan, Australia and India.
• It is also known as the Quad.
• It has a shared objective of ensuring a free, open and prosperous IndoPacific region.
• The idea of grouping was first mooted by Japanese Prime Minister Shinzo Abe in 2007.

Q18. Making Peace with Nature report has been published by a) United Nations
b) United Nations Environment Program
c) IUCN
d) FAO

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The UN has released the Making Peace with Nature report.
• The report pulls together all the evidence of environmental decline from major global scientific assessments, with the most advanced ideas on how to reverse it.
• The report, “Making Peace with Nature,” distills the latest science on climate change and mankind’s “war” on the planet.
• It also argues that amid our pursuit of wealth and security, humans must now learn to value the fundamental “natural capital” of geology, soil, air and water — and urgently.

Q19. Consider the following statements:

  1. The National Forest Policy of India envisages a minimum of 33% of the total geographical area under forest cover.
  2. Local governance bodies have a major role in urban forestry.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The National Forest Policy of India envisages a minimum of 33% of the total geographical area under forest cover to maintain environmental stability and ecological balance.
• As per the new Municipal Act and the new Panchayat Raj Act, it has been mandated that the local bodies safeguard the plants or face stringent action including penalties in the case of negligence.Local governance bodies have a major role in urban forestry.

Q20. Which of the following cities of India has been selected as one of the Tree Cities of the World? a) New Delhi
b) Hyderabad
c) Chennai
d) Bangalore

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Hyderabad city has been chosen as one among the ‘Tree Cities of the World’ by the Arbor Day Foundation jointly with the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations Organisation.
• Hyderabad is the only city in the country to have been selected for this recognition in response to its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forestry.
• Urban forestry is defined as the planting, maintenance, care and protection of tree populations in urban settings. And the role of trees is an essential function of city planning and urban infrastructure.

Q21. Dr JB Ekka committee, recently seen in news, is related to:
a) equal wages of small tea workers
b) rebalancing defence expenditure
c) national security
d) food labelling standards

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Assam government announced that the wage of tea garden workers will be increased from Rs 167 to Rs 217 per day. Although the tea garden managements pay the wages, the government fixes it.
• Moreover, for equal wages of small tea workers, a one-man committee under Principal Secretary Dr JB Ekka will be formed.
• Coming ahead of the state elections, the announcement is important because the tea tribe community — comprising 17% of the state’s population — is a deciding factor in almost 40 Assam Assembly seats out of the 126.
• The community is spread over in 800 tea gardens plus several unorganised small gardens of Assam. It is marked by exploitation, economic backwardness, poor health conditions and low literacy rates.
• Last Sunday, Congress leader Rahul Gandhi said in a rally in the state that the party will ensure a Rs 365 per day wage to tea garden workers of Assam if elected to power.
• In the Union Budget presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on February 1, Rs 1,000 crore was announced for the welfare of tea workers in Assam and West Bengal.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q22. With reference to the Twin Otter-300 aircraft, consider the following statements:

  1. India have a maintenance facility for a seaplane in Kochi.
  2. It can land and take off solely on the water.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The Ahmedabad-Kevadia seaplane returned from the Maldives on February 16 after a two-week maintenance tour at its home country. This was the third major suspension since its launch on October 31, 2020.
• A thorough maintenance check is part of the operation manual of the seaplane, which is a Twin Otter-300 aircraft. The plane will keep going back to the Maldives — its home country — every time it completes 124 flying hours.
• This is because the infrastructure to carry out the maintenance is not available in India.
• Moreover, the maintenance is not just about physical servicing but requires certification at various levels. The flight is registered in the Maldives and the aviation bodies there need to check the flight and certify that it is fit for flying.
It is the property of that country.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q23. With reference to the TROPEX-21 (Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise), consider the following statements:

  1. The exercise had commenced in January 2021 involving all three Commands of the Indian Navy, the Tri-Services Command at Port Blair, and elements of Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Coast Guard.
  2. The Biennial exercise is the largest exercise conducted by Indian Navy aimed to validate its concepts of war-fighting across the entire spectrum of warfare.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Admiral Karambir Singh, Chief of the Naval Staff presided over the debrief of TROPEX-21 (Theatre Level Operational Readiness Exercise) at Kochi.
• The exercise had commenced in January 2021 involving all three Commands of the Indian Navy, the Tri-Services Command at Port Blair, and elements of Indian Army, Indian Air Force and Coast Guard.
• The Biennial exercise is the largest exercise conducted by Indian Navy aimed to validate its concepts of war-fighting across the entire spectrum of warfare.
• The exercise was spread over the vast geographical expanse of Indian Ocean and its adjunct waters, with exercise scenarios centred around the extant geopolitical situation in IOR.
• As a prelude to this Theatre Level exercise, a coastal defence exercise – Sea Vigil was conducted in mid Jan 2021 which witnessed all stakeholder Ministries of Govt of India, State Governments of all coastal states and UTs, the Coast Guard, Port Authorities, shipping and fishing communities, with the Indian Navy as the lead agency.
• This was followed by an amphibious exercise (AMPHEX- 21) in which Indian naval amphibious ships, units of the Indian Army and Indian Air Force undertook joint exercise in the Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea, with an aim to validate India’s capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of its Island territories.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q24. With reference to the INS Pralaya, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the second ship of the indigenously built Prabal Class Missile Vessels, was commissioned in the Indian Navy on 18 December 2002.
  2. The ship was built indigenously at Cochin Shipyard Ltd.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Indian Naval Ship Pralaya arrived at Abu Dhabi, UAE to participate in the NAVDEX 21 (Naval Defence Exhibition) and IDEX 21 (International Defence Exhibition), scheduled from 20 to 25 February 2021.
• INS Pralaya, the second ship of the indigenously built Prabal Class Missile Vessels, was commissioned in the Indian Navy on 18 December 2002.
• The 56 m long ship, displacing about 560 T is capable of speeds in excess of 35 knots and is fitted with an impressive array of weapons and sensors.
• These include a 76.2 mm medium range gun, 30 mm close range guns, chaff launchers and long range surface to surface missiles.
• The ship was built indigenously at Goa Shipyard Limited.
Defence relations between India and UAE:
• Towards enhancing interactions between the two navies, inaugural edition of Indian Navy – UAE Navy bilateral exercise GULF STAR – 1 was conducted in March 2018. The next edition of the exercise is likely to be conducted in 2021. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q25. Helina, is the helicopter-launched version of which of the following missile system?
a) Prithvi-III
b) Brahmos
c) Akash
d) Nag

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Joint User Trials for the helicopter-launched version of the Nag anti-tank guided missile, ‘Helina’, and its Air Force variant ‘Dhruvastra’ have been carried out from Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) platform in desert ranges.
• Helina, which is the helicopter-launched version of the Nag missile system, is a third-generation, Lock on Before Launch (LOBL) fire and forget class antitank guided missile (ATGM) system mounted on the ALH.
• The system has all- weather day and night operational capabilities and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as explosive reactive armour (ERA). The Helina missile can engage targets both in direct hit mode as well as top attack mode.
• While the Helina weapon systems has been developed for the Indian Army, its IAF variant Dhruvastra has also been developed by the DRDO and now both variants are ready for induction into services.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q26. With reference to the “Go Electric” Campaign, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an important initiative that would help in reducing the import dependence of our country in the coming years and would be an important step towards a cleaner and greener future.
  2. To implement the ‘Go Electric’ campaign at National and State level, Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) will extend technical support to the State Designated Agencies (SDAs).
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Union Minister for Road Transport & Highways launched the “Go Electric” Campaign to spread awareness on the benefits of e-mobility and EV Charging Infrastructure as well as electric cooking in India.
• Go Electric Campaign is an important initiative that would help in reducing the import dependence of our country in the coming years and would be an important step towards a cleaner and greener future.
• The campaign is aimed at creating awareness at PAN-India level and is expected to boost the confidence of Electric Vehicle manufacturers.
• To implement the ‘Go Electric’ campaign at National and State level, Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) will extend technical support to the State Designated Agencies (SDAs).
• As a Central Nodal Agency, BEE will provide content and details to State Designated Agencies and other partners to ensure uniformity of information.
• Electric fuel is a major alternative for fossil fuels which have an import bill of Rs. 8 lakh Crore.
• When compared to conventional fuels the electric fuel has low cost, reduced emissions and it is also indigenous.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q27. Which of the following city has won a green contest among cities in India, and emerged one of the ‘Tree Cities of the World’?
a) Hyderabad
b) Kochi
c) Chennai
d) Delhi

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Hyderabad has won a green contest among cities in India, and emerged one of the ‘Tree Cities of the World’.
• That title has been bestowed by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO).
• Hyderabad has been selected for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forestry under the State government’s Haritha Haram programme and its Urban Forest Parks plan.
• With the recognition, the city joins 120 others from 23 countries, including the U.S., the U.K., Canada, and Australia.
• The city was evaluated on five metrics: ‘Establish Responsibility’, ‘Set the Rules’, ‘Know What You Have’, ‘Allocate the Resources’, and ‘Celebrate the Achievements’.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q28. Which of the following organization has received the Asia Environmental Enforcement Award-2020 awarded by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)?
a) World wide fund for nature
b) Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB)
c) The Nature Conservancy
d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) has received the Asia Environmental Enforcement Award-2020 awarded by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
• WCCB got the award twice in three years. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) has been awarded this year under the Innovation category.
• Earlier, the Bureau had received the award in 2018 under the same category. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB):
• Status: A statutory body constituted under the WildLife (Protection) Act, 1972.
• Parent Agency: Ministry of Environment and Forests.
• Mandate: To combat organized wildlife crime in the country.
• Location: The Bureau has its headquarter in New Delhi and five regional offices at Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai and Jabalpur.
• WCCB has developed an online Wildlife Crime Database Management
System to get real time data to analyse trends in wildlife crimes across India.
• This system has been successfully used for carrying out operations such as Operation Save Kurma, Thunderbird, Wildnet, Lesknow, Birbil, Thunderstorm, Lesknow-II etc resulting in huge seizures of Tiger/Leopard Skin/bones, Rhino Horn, Elephant Ivory etc.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q29. Consider the following statements about Rash Behari Bose:

  1. He was one of the key organisers of the Ghadar Mutiny, and later the Indian National Army.
  2. Rash Behari Bose handed over Indian National Army to Subhas Chandra Bose.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Union Home Minister attended the ‘Shauryanjali’ programme, organized to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
• He also flagged off a cycle rally.
• Three teams, namely Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose, Rasbehari Bose and Khudiram Bose, are participating in the rally which will create awareness in different parts of West Bengal about the great sacrifices made by the revolutionaries of Bengal in the freedom movement.
• Rash Behari Bose (1886 – 1945) was an Indian revolutionary leader against the British Raj.
• He was born in West Bengal.
• Following the attempt to assassinate Lord Hardinge on 23 December 1912 in Delhi, Rash Behari was forced to go into hiding.
• He was one of the key organisers of the Ghadar Mutiny, and later the Indian National Army.
• Rash Behari Bose handed over Indian National Army to Subhas Chandra Bose.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q30. Nankana Sahib is the birth place of:
a) Guru Angad
b) Guru Amar Das
c) Guru Ram Das
d) Guru Nanak Dev

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The centenary of Sri Nankana Sahib massacre, which is popularly known as Saka Nankana Sahib, is being marked in an event there on February 21 this year.
• Nankana Sahib, the birth place of first Sikh guru, Guru Nanak Dev, was also the site of the first big agitation by the SGPC to take back control of gurdwaras from mahants backed by the British.
• The SGPC came to existence in November 1920, a month after Sikhs removed partial restrictions on Dalit rights inside Golden Temple in Amritsar.
• It started gurdwara reform movement which was aimed at taking possession of historical Sikh Gurdwaras, which had turned personal property of the priests, who were called mahants. These mahants were also accused of running practices from gurdwaras which were not approved in Sikhism.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.