choose your color

19 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

blog image

19 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the Reserve Bank of India acts as the depository of GSecs.
  2. Most Government bonds in India are issued as fixed rate bonds. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2.
    d) None of the above

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• The Public Debt Office (PDO) of the Reserve Bank of India acts as the registry / depository of G-Secs and deals with the issue, interest payment and repayment of principal at maturity. Most of the dated securities are fixed coupon securities.
Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• Most Government bonds in India are issued as fixed rate bonds. Fixed Rate Bonds are bonds on which the coupon rate is fixed for the entire life (i.e. till maturity) of the bond.
Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding Jet streams.

  1. Jet streams are a narrow belt of high-altitude westerly winds in the troposphere.
  2. These blow at a constant speed throughout the year.
  3. They are limited to tropical latitudes with occasional movements in the sub-tropics. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 and 2
    b) 1 and 3
    c) 1 only
    d) 2 and 3 only

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• Jet streams are a narrow belt of high altitude (above 12,000 m) westerly winds in the troposphere.
Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter.
• A number of separate jet streams have been identified.
The most constant are the mid-latitude and the sub-tropical jet stream.

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding Kelps

  1. Kelps are large brown algae seaweeds that can survive freezing temperatures and long periods of darkness, and even grow under sea ice.
  2. Kelp forests help protect coastlines by decreasing the power of waves during storms and reducing coastal erosion.
  3. It is an important source of potash and iodine.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 and 2
    b) 2 and 3
    c) 1 and 3
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
• Kelps are large brown algae seaweeds that make up the order Laminariales. There are about 30 different genera.
• Kelps have adapted to the severe conditions. These cool water species have special strategies to survive freezing temperatures and long periods of darkness, and even grow under sea ice.
• In regions with cold, nutrient-rich water, they can attain some of the highest rates of primary production of any natural ecosystem on Earth.
• Kelp forests also help protect coastlines by decreasing the power of waves during storms and reducing coastal erosion.
• Kelp forests throughout the world play an important role in coastal economies, supporting a broad range of tourism, recreational and commercial activities.
• Kelp is a coveted food source in many countries, full of potassium, iron, calcium, fibre and iodine.

Q4. Consider the following statement about Pangong Tso

  1. It is identified as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention
  2. It lies on the actual Line of Actual Control
  3. It is a brackish water lake Select the correct statements
    a) 1 and 2
    b) 2 and 3
    c) 1 and 3
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Pangong Lake
• It is an endorheic lake in the Himalayas.
• Approximately 60% of the length of Pangong Lake lies in Tibet.
• Though it’s a saline water lake, it freezes completely during winters.
• The brackish water of Pangong Lake has very low micro-vegetation. Reportedly, there is no fish or any aquatic life in the lake, except crustaceans.
The lake is in the process of being identified as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention. It will be a first trans-boundary wetland in South Asia under convention
Pangong Lake is a disputed territory. The Line of Actual Control passes through the lake. A section of the lake 20 km from the Line of Actual Control is controlled by China but claimed by India! The Eastern end is in Tibet and India doesn’t claim it. The Western end is disputed between India and Pakistan.

Q5. Consider the following statements with respect to the Sunil Mehta panel

  1. The panel is working on faster resolution of stressed assets in public sector banks.
  2. On its recommendation an asset management company (AMC) for resolving large bad loans has been formed and will be called as Sashakt India Asset Management. Which of the above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Sunil Mehta panel: The panel proposed the creation of a bad bank for the faster resolution of stressed assets in public sector banks.
• On its recommendation, an asset management company (AMC), ‘Sashakt India Asset Management’, has been formed.
• The panel is now working towards identifying potential investors for an alternate investment fund (AIF) which will fund the AMC.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to the National Education Policy (NEP), 2020

  1. The NEP 2020 is the second in the series of National Education Policies in India and is the first education policy of the 21st century.
  2. It is shaped by the recommendations of TSR Subramanian and Dr K Kasturirangan committees.
    Which of the above statement/s is/are incorrect?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Background of NEP 2020:
• In 2016, the Committee for Evolution of the New Education Policy under the Chairmanship of T.S.R. Subramanian had submitted its report.
• In 2017, the Committee for the Draft National Education Policy was constituted under the Chairmanship of Dr. K. Kasturirangan, which submitted the Draft National
Education Policy, 2019 o NEP 2020 has been formulated after the process of consultation.
• The NEP 2020 is the third in the series of National Education Policies (1968 and 1986 modified in 1992) in India and is the first education policy of the 21st century.
• NEP 2020 covers a wider spectrum of school education from pre-primary to senior secondary.
• The major portions of NEP will be covered under the new National Curriculum Framework (NCF) and centrally sponsored schemes.

Q7. Consider the following statements:

  1. The creamy layer concept was first applied in the Indra Sawhney case.
  2. Article 16(4A) enables the state to make any law regarding reservation in promotion for SCs and STs.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :- Creamy layer
• “Creamy layer” concept involves application of a means test or imposition of an income limit, for the purpose of excluding people whose income is above the limit from the backward class.
• This was earlier only applicable for reservations only under the Other Backward Classes quota.
• Dalits and Adivasis were excluded since it was argued that their backwardness was based purely on untouchability, for which economic improvement was not a remedy.
• The creamy layer concept was first applied in the Indra Sawhney case, or the Mandal case, as the judgment said that the creamy Layer must be identified and excluded from the backward classes to serve the purpose and object of reservation. 1 is correct.
Reservation in promotions
• Article 335 recognises that special measures need to be adopted for considering the claims of SCs and STs in order to bring them to a level-playing field.
• The Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 was passed by parliament, inserting Article 16(4A), which enables the state to make any law regarding reservation in promotion for SCs and STs. 2 is correct.
o The amendment introduced the words “with consequential seniority” after “in matters of promotion” in Article 16(4A).
• Other amendments followed. Article 16(4B) provides that reserved promotion posts for SCs and STs that remain unfilled can be carried forward to the subsequent year.
• Article 16(4B) ensures that the ceiling on the reservation quota – capped at 50% by Indra Sawhney – for these carried forward unfilled posts does not apply to subsequent years.

Q8. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is controlled by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  2. The CVC is not an investigating agency. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The Central Vigilance Commission
• CVC are conceived to be the apex vigilance institution, free of control from any executive authority, monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advising various authorities in Central Government organizations in planning, executing, reviewing and reforming their vigilant work.
• It was set up by the Government in 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.
• The Central Vigilance Commission has been made a multi member Commission with “statutory status” as per the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003.
• The CVC is not controlled by any Ministry/Department. It is an independent body which is only responsible to the Parliament. Statement 1 is incorrect.
Composition: The Commission shall consist of:
• A Central Vigilance Commissioner – Chairperson;
• Not more than two Vigilance Commissioners – Members;
Powers and Functions: The CVC is not an investigating agency. The CVC either get the investigation done through the CBI or through the Departmental Chief Vigilance Officers. Statement 2 is correct.
• It is empowered to inquire into offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act- 1988 by certain categories of public servants.
• Its annual report gives the details of the work done by the commission and points to systemic failures which lead to corruption in government departments.

Q9. Furfura pilgrimage site is located in:
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Kerala
c) Odisha
d) West Bengal

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Furfura pilgrimage site is becoming the epicentre of Muslim politics in West Bengal.
• Furfura Sharif (also known as Furfura, Phurphura, Furfura Darbar Sharif) is a village in Hooghly District, West Bengal.
• It is a holy place for Bengali Muslims.
• Before the afternoon prayers, people queue up at the mazar (shrine) of Hazrat Abu Baqar Siddique (1846-1939), a prominent peer (holy person) of the town.
• People say that this is the second most prominent mazar in the country after Ajmer Sharif in Rajasthan.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q10. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Wetlands States

  1. Harike Lake Punjab
  2. Deepor Beel Sikkim
  3. Kolleru Lake Odisha
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Winter migratory water birds using the central Asian flyway have started making a beeline to Punjab’s Harike wetland, offering a delight for bird lovers.
• Harike Wetland also known as “Hari-ke-Pattan”, with the Harike Lake in the deeper part of it, is the largest wetland in northern India in the border of Tarn Taran Sahib district and Ferozepur district of Punjab.
• The wetland and the lake were formed by constructing the headworks across the Sutlej river in 1953.
• The headworks is located downstream of the confluence of the Beas and Sutlej rivers just south of Harike village.
• It has been designated as one of the Ramasar sites in India.
Kolleru Lake is one of the largest freshwater lakes in India located in state of Andhra Pradesh and forms the largest shallow freshwater lake in Asia. Deepor Beel, is located to the southwest of Guwahati city, in Kamrup district of Assam, India. It is a permanent freshwater lake.

Q11. With reference to the ‘New Anubhava Mantapa’, consider the following statements:

  1. The New Anubhava Mantapa will be a six-floor structure in the midst of the 7.5 acre plot and represent various principles of Basaveshwara’s philosophy.
  2. The building will adopt the Kalyana Chalukya style of architecture. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Karnataka Chief Minister laid the foundation stone for the ‘New Anubhava Mantapa’ in Basavakalyan, the place where 12th century poet-philosopher Basaveshwara lived for most of his life.
• He promised the completion of the ₹500 crore project within two years. The project to highlight the teachings of Basaveshwara (an icon of the Veerashaiva-Lingayat community) was first proposed back in 2016.
• Basavakalyan, an important pilgrim centre for Lingayats.
• The New Anubhava Mantapa, as envisaged now, will be a six-floor structure in the midst of the 7.5 acre plot and represent various principles of Basaveshwara’s philosophy.
• It will showcase the 12th Century Anubhava Mantapa (often referred to as the “first Parliament of the world”) established by him in Basavakalyan, where philosophers and social reformers held debates.
• The building will adopt the Kalyana Chalukya style of architecture.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q12. With reference to the Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) food price index, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities.
  2. It consists of the average of 10 commodity group price indices weighted with the average export shares.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
World food prices rose for a seventh consecutive month in December, with all the major categories, barring sugar, posting gains last month, the United Nations food agency said.
• The Food and Agriculture Organization’s (FAO) food price index is a measure of the monthly change in international prices of a basket of food commodities.
• It consists of the average of five commodity group price indices [cereal, vegetable, dairy, meat and sugar], weighted with the average export shares.
• It averaged 107.5 points in December versus 105.2 in November. For the whole of 2020, the benchmark index averaged 97.9 points, a three-year high and a 3.1% increase from 2019.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q13. With reference to the Motor Bike Ambulance ‘Rakshita’, consider the following statements:

  1. It was developed by CSIR.
  2. Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be fitted in and taken out as per requirement.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 Only
    b) 2 Only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
DRDO hands over Motor Bike Ambulance ‘Rakshita’ to CRPF.
• Institute of Nuclear Medicine and Allied Sciences (INMAS), Delhi based DRDO laboratory, handed over Rakshita, a bike-based casualty transport emergency vehicle to Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) .
• Rakshita is fitted with a customized reclining Casualty Evacuation Seat (CES), which can be fitted in and taken out as per requirement.
• The bike ambulance will help in overcoming the problems faced by Indian security forces and emergency healthcare providers. It will provide life-saving aid for evacuation of injured patients from low intensity conflict areas.
• This bike ambulance is useful not only for the paramilitary and military forces but has potential civil applications too. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q14. Private Asset Management Company (PAMC) and National Asset Management
Company (NAMC) are recommendations of
a) Sunil Mehta panel
b) Viral Acharya
c) Raghuram Rajan
d) None of the Above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
• Recommendations of Viral Acharya (former RBI Deputy Governor):
o It would be better to limit the objective of these asset management companies to the orderly resolution of stressed assets.
o Two models to solve the problem of stressed assets –
 A private asset management company (PAMC): Which is said to be suitable for stressed sectors where the assets are likely to have an economic value in the short run.
 National Asset Management Company (NAMC): Which would be necessary for sectors where the problem is not just one of excess capacity but possibly also of economically unviable assets in the short to medium terms.

Q15. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. PMKVY 1.0 Free short duration skill training
  2. PMKVY 2.0 Make in India
  3. PMKVY 3.0 Atmnanirbhar Bharat
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 only
    b) 3 only
    c) 1 and 2 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : d)
Explanation :- PMKVY 1.0:
• Launch: India’s largest Skill Certification Scheme – Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) – was launched on 15th July, 2015 (World Youth Skills Day).
• Aim: To encourage and promote skill development in the country by providing free short duration skill training and incentivizing this by providing monetary rewards to youth for skill certification.
• Implementation: PMKVY is implemented by the National Skills Development Corporation (NSDC) under the guidance of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).
• Key Components: Short Term Training, Special Projects, Recognition of Prior Learning, Kaushal & Rozgar Mela, etc.
• Outcome: In 2015-16, 19.85 lakh candidates were trained.

PMKVY 2.0:
• Coverage: PMKVY 2016-20 (PMKVY 2.0) was launched by scaling up both in terms of Sector and Geography and by greater alignment with other missions of the Government of India like Make in India, Digital India, Swachh Bharat, etc.
• Budget: Rs. 12,000 Crore.
• Implementation Through Two Components:
• Centrally Sponsored Centrally Managed (CSCM): This component was implemented by National Skill Development Corporation. 75% of the PMKVY 2016-20 funds and corresponding physical targets have been allocated under CSCM.
• Centrally Sponsored State Managed (CSSM): This component was implemented by State Governments through State Skill Development Missions (SSDMs). 25% of the PMKVY 2016-20 funds and corresponding physical targets have been allocated under CSSM.
• Outcome: More than 1.2 Crore youth have been trained/oriented through an improved standardized skilling ecosystem in the country under PMKVY 1.0 and PMKVY 2.0.

PMKVY 3.0:
• Coverage: Launched in 717 districts, 28 States/eight UTs, PMKVY 3.0 is a step towards ‘Atmnanirbhar Bharat’.
• Implementation: It will be implemented in a more decentralized structure with greater responsibilities and support from States/UTs and Districts.
• Features:
• It envisages training of eight lakh candidates over a scheme period of 20202021 with an outlay of Rs. 948.90 crore.
• The 729 Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras (PMKKs), empaneled nonPMKK training centres and more than 200 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) under Skill India will be rolling out PMKVY 3.0 training to build a robust pool of skilled professionals.
• It will be more trainee- and learner-centric. The focus is on bridging the demandsupply gap by promoting skill development in areas of new-age and Industry 4.0 job roles.
• It will be a propagator of vocational education at an early level for youth to capitalize on industry-linked opportunities.
• The National Educational Policy 2020 also puts focus on vocational training for a holistic growth and increased employability.

• By taking the bottom-up approach to training, it will identify job roles that have demand at the local level and skill the youth, linking them to these opportunities (Vocal for Local).
• It will encourage healthy competition between states by making available increased allocation to those states that perform better.