21 JUNE CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Which of the following are members of Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO)?

1. Kazakhstan
2. China
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Russia
5. Turkmenistan
   Select the correct answer from the code below:
   a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
   b) 2, 3 and 4 only
   c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
   d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:
SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation.
 It’s a Eurasian political, economic and military organisation aiming to maintain
peace, security and stability in the region.
 Membership

1. Kazakhstan
2. China
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Russia
5. Tajikistan
6. Uzbekistan
7. India
8. Pakistan

Q2. Consider the following statements about International Yoga Day.

1. The United Nations theme for the year 2021 is “Yoga for Fitness”
2. The brown leaves depict the fire element in the logo of Yoga Day.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: d)

Explanation:
 The UN proclaimed June 21 as International Day of Yoga by passing a resolution
on December 11, 2014, during the 69th session of the General Assembly on a
proposal by Indian Prime Minister. June 21 also marks the longest day of the year
in the Northern Hemisphere.
 The theme of the International Yoga Day 2021 is ‘Yoga for well-being – how the
practice of Yoga can promote the holistic health of every individual. Statement
1 is incorrect.
 The folding-hands logo of Yoga Day reflects “the union of individual consciousness
with that of universal consciousness.
 The brown leaves in the logo symbolize the earth element, the green leaves of
nature, blue the fire element while the sun symbolises the source of energy and
inspiration. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q3. Consider the following statements about Sagaramala:

1. The Sagarmala project seeks to develop a string of ports around India’s coast.
2. The Union Ministry of Commerce has been appointed as the nodal ministry for this
   initiative.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The Sagarmala project seeks to develop a string of ports around India’s coast.
 The objective of this initiative is to promote “Port-led development” along India’s long
coastline. Statement 1 is correct.
 The Union Ministry of Shipping has been appointed as the nodal ministry for this
initiative. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Q4. With regard to the Greater Adjutant Stork, consider the following statements:

1. It is found only in the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It is listed as Critically Endangered in the IUCN Red list.
3. It is facing threat due to habitat loss, poaching and poisoning.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 3 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1,2 and 3
   Solution: a)

Explanation:
 Greater Adjutant Stork (Hargila) is found in a few isolated pockets in Assam and
Bihar in India and PrekToal in Cambodia. Statement 1 is incorrect
 It is listed as “Endangered” in IUCN Red list of threatened species and also it is
listed under schedule IV of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement 2
is incorrect.
 Habitat loss, poaching and poisoning are the major threats to the species. Cutting
down of nesting trees by the tree owners and infrastructural construction has
resulted into a breeding failure of the species and many historical breeding colonies
have gone missing in its historical distribution range. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
 The Endangered Greater Adjutant stork (Leptoptilosdubius) is one of the rarest
species of Storks out of twenty species of Storks in the world. In India, eight species
of residential storks are found, out of which Greater Adjutant is one of them. Once
abundantly distributed in Southeast Asia, this stork is now restricted to a few
isolated pockets in Assam and Bihar in India and PrekToal in Cambodia. This
colonial bird breeds in traditional nesting colonies within thickly populated villages
in Assam and breeds in tall tree species.

Q5. Which of the following could be attributed to Stubble Burning on the Indo-Gangetic
Plain?

1. Use of Combined Harvesters.
2. Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act
3. Small window between Harvesting and Sowing Period.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1, 2 and 3
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 only
   d) 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:
All are correct.
Stubble (parali) burning is the act of setting fire to crop residue to remove them from the
field to sow the next crop.
 In order to plant the next winter crop (Rabi crop), farmers in Haryana and Punjab
have to move in a very short interval and if they are late, due to short winters these
days, they might face considerable losses. Therefore, burning is the cheapest and
fastest way to get rid of the stubble.
o If parali is left in the field, pests like termites may attack the upcoming crop.
o The precarious economic condition of farmers doesn’t allow them to use
expensive mechanised methods to remove stubble.
 Reasons for Stubble burning
 Mechanization (use of combine harvesters) leaves behind smaller stubble on the
ground that is difficult to collect.
 Laws like Punjab Preservation of Subsoil Water Act which has delayed the date for
paddy transplantation.
 Crop intensification leaves farmers with small windows to clear the fields so burning
the residue is the easiest.

Q6. With reference to the FAME Scheme, consider the following statements:

1. It is to promote manufacturing of electric vehicles technology.
2. It aims to promote BS VI standard hybrid vehicles.
3. It is a part of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan 2020.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 1, 2 and 3
   d) 1 and 2 only

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The government is giving a greater push to adoption of electric vehicles. This will help India
achieve the carbon emission reduction obligation set under the Paris Agreement.
The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 is a National Mission document
providing the vision and the roadmap for the faster adoption of electric vehicles and their

manufacturing in the country. As part of the NEMMP 2020, the Department of Heavy
Industry formulated a Scheme viz. Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid and)
Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme in the year 2015 to promote manufacturing
of electric and hybrid vehicle technology and to ensure sustainable growth of the same.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The scheme is not linked to BS VI standard technology.
National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020
The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 is a National Mission document
providing the vision and the roadmap for the faster adoption of electric vehicles and their
manufacturing in the country. This plan has been designed to enhance national fuel
security, to provide affordable and environmentally friendly transportation and to enable
the Indian automotive industry to achieve global manufacturing leadership.
Various initiatives have been taken by the Government to promote electric mobility in the
country. Some of them are summarized hereunder:

1. Under new GST regime, the rates of GST on Electric Vehicles has been kept in the
   lower bracket of 12% (with no Cess) as against the 28% GST rate with Cess up to
   22% for conventional vehicles.
2. Ministry of Power has allowed sale of electricity as ‘service’ for charging of electric
   vehicles. This would provide a huge incentive to attract investments into charging
   infrastructure.
3. Ministry of Road Transport Highways issued notification regarding exemption of
   permit in case of battery-operated vehicles.
4. Issue of Expression of Interest (EoI) for deployment of 5000 electric buses by State
   Transport Departments/Undertakings etc.

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Agricultural Census in India:

1. It is a Central Sector Scheme for the collection of data on the structure of operational
   holdings by different size classes and social groups.
2. It is conducted every five years in India.
3. The first Agricultural Census was conducted in 1950-51.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 and 3 only
   d) 1,2 and 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:

Agricultural Census, is conducted every five years in India for the collection of data on the
structure of operational holdings by different size classes and social groups. Primary ( fresh
data) and secondary (already published) data on the structure of Indian agriculture are
collected under this operation with the help of State Governments. Hence statement 2 is
correct.
Agricultural Census is carried out as a Central Sector Scheme under which 100% financial
assistance is provided to States/Union Territories. Hence statement 1 is correct.
Agricultural Census operation is carried out in three phases.
During Phase-I, a list of all holdings with data on area, gender, and social group of the
holder is prepared with the help of the listing schedule.
During Phase-II detailed data on tenancy, land use, irrigation status, area under different
crops (irrigated and unirrigated) are collected in a holding schedule.
Phase-III, which is called Input Survey, relates to the collection of data of input use across
various crops, States, and size groups of holdings, in addition to data on agriculture credit,
implements, and machinery, livestock, and seeds.
It is undertaken by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare.
The first Agricultural Census in the country was conducted with the reference year 1970-

71. Hence statement 3 is not correct

Q8. With respect to expenditure in election, consider the following statements1. The maximum limit of spending in Lok Sabha elections is more than 50 Lakhs.

2. The maximum limit of spending in State Legislative elections is less than 20 lakhs.
3. Candidates are required to communicate the expenditure to Election Commission
   with 10 days of expenditure
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
   a) 2 only
   b) 1 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1 and 3 only

Solution: c)

Explanation:
About Election expenditure
 Rule 90 of Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 prescribes that total election
expenditure by candidate shall not exceed maximum limit.
o Any change in the rule requires the law ministry’s approval.
o Current expenditure limit for state and Parliament elections differs from state
to state.
o A limit has been fixed for all expenses such as prints and electronic
advertisements including social media accounts, public meetings, etc.
o EC imposes limits on campaign expenditure incurred by a candidate, but not
by a political party.
 Government has amended the rule to allow for the increase in the expenditure
ceiling. The poll ceiling has now increased from Rs 70 lakh to Rs 77 lakh in Lok
Sabha elections and from 28 lakh to 30.8 lakh in assembly elections. Hence,
statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not correct.
o The rules shall remain in force until they are Denotified by the central
government.
 It is mandatory for all candidates to open an account in the bank for expenses,
payment of which will be made through cheque.
 Candidates are required to submit their expenditure statement to EC within 30 days
of completion of the elections.
 An incorrect account, or expenditure beyond the ceiling, can attract disqualification
for up to three years.

Q9. With reference to the Telecom Regulatory Authority Of India (TRAI), consider the
following statements:

1. It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members and not more
   than two part-time members.
2. It is a Constitutional body.
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Telecom Regulatory Authority Of India (TRAI)
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) is the regulator of the
telecommunications sector in India to regulate telecom services and tariffs in India.
Background: It was established in 1997.
Status: It is a statutory body set up by the Government of India under section 3 of the
Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
Composition: It consists of a Chairperson and not more than two full-time members and
not more than two part-time members. Statement 1 is correct.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding Central Issue Price (CIP) in India:

1. It is the price at which the central government issues food grains to state.
   governments and UTs.
2. It is more than the economic cost of food grains incurred by the Central
   Government.
   Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Central Issue Price (CIP) is the price at which central government issues food grains to
state governments and governments of Union territories for distribution under Targeted
Public Distribution System (TPDS) to serve families of Below Poverty Line (BPL), Above
Poverty Line (APL) and Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) at rates fixed by the Government of
India. Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution Government of India, fixes
the Central Issue Prices (CIP) of wheat and rice which is uniform throughout the country.
CIP is less than the economic cost incurred by the Central Government by way of
procurement, storage, transport and distribution. The difference between the economic
cost and the CIP, called the consumer subsidy, is borne by the Central Government. Hence
statement 2 is not correct.