24 to 28 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC).

1. The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is an inter-governmental forum that promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region.
2. In APEC, all economies have an equal say and decision-making is reached by consensus.
3. China, Japan, Indonesia and India are members of APEC.
4. APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   b) 1, 2 and 4 only
   c) 1, 3 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
• The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-Pacific.
• APEC works to help all residents of the Asia-Pacific participate in the growing economy. For example, APEC projects provide digital skills training for rural communities and help indigenous women export their products abroad. Recognizing the impacts of climate change, APEC members also implement initiatives to increase energy efficiency and promote sustainable management of forest and marine resources.
• In APEC, all economies have an equal say and decision-making is reached by consensus. There are no binding commitments or treaty obligations.
• APEC’s 21 member economies are Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada; Chile;
People’s Republic of China; Hong Kong, China; Indonesia; Japan; Republic of Korea;
Malaysia; Mexico; New Zealand; Papua New Guinea; Peru; The Philippines; The Russian Federation; Singapore; Chinese Taipei; Thailand; United States of America; Viet Nam.

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding National Green Tribunal.

1. National Green Tribunal was established by an act of parliament for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
2. The Tribunal is bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure.
3. NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2
   b) 1 and 3
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
National Green Tribunal:

1. Established on 18th October, 2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.
2. Established for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources.
3. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
4. The Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.
5. NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same.

Q3. Consider the following statements.

1. India is the only country to set up a permanent station in the Arctic for the purposes of scientific research.
2. India was first granted the Observer status in Arctic Council in 1991 after it announced the New Economic Policy.
3. The Observer status is granted to entities that support the objectives of the Arctic Council, including the ability to make financial contributions.
   Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 and 2
   b) 1 Only
   c) 1 and 3
   d) 2 and 3 only

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
• India is one of the very few countries to set up a permanent station in the Arctic for the purposes of scientific research. The station has been used to carry out a variety of biological, glaciological and atmospheric and climate sciences research projects in the last one decade.
• The Himadri research station, located in Ny Alesund, Svalbard in Norway, about 1200 km south of the North Pole, was started in July 2008. The Goa-based National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCOAR) is the nodal organisation coordinating the research activities at this station.
• India, along with 12 other countries, is Observers to the Arctic Council.
• The Observer status is granted to entities that support the objectives of the Arctic Council, and have demonstrated capabilities in this regard, including the ability to make financial contributions. The renewal of Observer status is a formality. The status, once granted, continues till there is a consensus among the members that the Observer was engaging in activities that run counter to the objectives of the Arctic Council.
• India had been given the Observer status in 2013, along with five other countries — China, Italy, Japan, South Korea, and Singapore.
• The Arctic Council does not prohibit the commercial exploitation of resources in the Arctic. It only seeks to ensure that it is done in a sustainable manner without harming the interests of local populations and in conformity with the local environment.

Q4. With reference to the draft National Rail Plan, consider the following statements:

1. The objective is to increase the modal share of Railways from 27% currently to 75% in freight by 2030.
2. It aims to reduce transit time of freight substantially by increasing average speed of freight trains from present 22Kmph to 50Kmph.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Indian Railways issued draft National Rail Plan.
• The objective of the Plan is to create capacity ahead of demand by 2030, which in turn would cater to growth in demand right up to 2050 and also increase the modal share of Railways from 27% currently to 45% in freight by 2030.
• It aims to Reduce transit time of freight substantially by increasing average speed of freight trains from present 22Kmph to 50Kmph.
• Three Dedicated Freight Corridors, namely East Coast, East-West & North-South identified along with timelines. PETS survey already underway
• Assess Locomotive requirement to meet twin objectives of 100% electrification (Green Energy) by December 2023 and also the increasing traffic right up to 2030 and beyond up to 2050.
• Several new High Speed Rail Corridors have also been identified. Survey on DelhiVaranasi High Speed Rail already under way Vision 2024:
• As part of the National Rail Plan, Vision 2024 has been launched for accelerated implementation of certain critical projects by 2024 such as o 100% electrification, o upgradation of speed to 160 kmph on Delhi-Howrah and Delhi-Mumbai routes, o upgradation of speed to 130kmph on all other Golden Quadrilateral-Golden
Diagonal (GQ/GD) routes and o elimination of all Level Crossings on all GQ/GD route.
Hence only statement 2 is correct

Q5. With respect to “sessions of Parliament”, consider the following statements:

1. The decision to convene a session is taken by the Home Minister.
2. The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Which of the above given statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The government has said that parties are in favour of doing away with the Winter Session, and that it would be appropriate to have the Budget Session in January.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect: The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government. The decision is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs, which currently comprises nine ministers, including those for Defence, Home, Finance, and Law. The decision of the Committee is formalised by the President, in whose name MPs are summoned to meet for a session.
Hence Statement 2 is correct: The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution.
This provision specified that the central legislature had to be summoned to meet at least once a year, and that not more than 12 months could elapse between two sessions. India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention, Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.

Q6. Consider the following statements with respect to KIRAN (Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing) Scheme

1. It aimed at bringing gender parity in the Science & Technology sector by inducting more women talent.
2. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Knowledge Involvement in Research Advancement through Nurturing (KIRAN): The Department of Science and Technology (DST) has launched KIRAN Scheme, aiming to bring gender parity in the Science & Technology sector by inducting more women talent.

Q7. The Global Climate Risk Index 2021, recently in news, is released by a) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
b) Germanwatch
c) The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)
d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
According to the Climate Risk Index 2021, released by environmental think tank Germanwatch, India incurred the maximum losses due to extreme weather in 2019 Germanwatch is an independent development and environmental organisation, based in Bonn and Berlin (Germany),which works for sustainable global development. Major findings of the Climate Risk Index 2021:

Q8. The Injeti Srinivas Committee is associated with
a) Fintech
b) Corporate Social Responsibility
c) Banking reforms
d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The committee chaired by Injeti Srinivas, secretary, corporate affairs ministry made its recommendations on Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) to the Minister Of Corporate
Affairs (MCA). Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
The term “Corporate Social Responsibility” in general can be referred to as corporate initiative to assess and take responsibility for the company’s effects on the environment and impact on social welfare.

Q9. Consider the following statements about Blockchain technology:

1. It is a structure that stores transactional records, also known as chains.
2. Every transaction in this ledger is authorized by the digital signature of the owner. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Blockchain technology
• It is a structure that stores transactional records, also known as the block, of the public in several databases, known as the “chain,” in a network connected through peer-topeer nodes. 1 is incorrect.
• Typically, this storage is referred to as a ‘digital ledger.’
• Every transaction in this ledger is authorized by the digital signature of the owner, which authenticates the transaction and safeguards it from tampering. 2 is correct.
• Hence, the information the digital ledger contains is highly secure.

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding International Criminal Court (ICC).

1. International Criminal Court (ICC) is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
2. The ICC has universal territorial jurisdiction to investigate and prosecute crimes of international concern.
3. India and U.S. are the members of the court.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 1 and 3
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1 and 2 only

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
• The International Criminal Court (ICC), located in The Hague, is the court of last resort for prosecution of genocide, war crimes, and crimes against humanity.
• It is the first permanent, treaty based, international criminal court established to help end impunity for the perpetrators of the most serious crimes of concern to the international community.
• Its founding treaty, the Rome Statute, entered into force on July 1, 2002.
• Funding: Although the Court’s expenses are funded primarily by States Parties, it also receives voluntary contributions from governments, international organisations, individuals, corporations and other entities.
Composition and voting power:

1. The Court’s management oversight and legislative body, the Assembly of States Parties, consists of one representative from each state party.
2. Each state party has one vote and “every effort” has to be made to reach decisions by consensus. If consensus cannot be reached, decisions are made by vote.
3. The Assembly is presided over by a president and two vice-presidents, who are elected by the members to three-year terms.
   • The ICC lacks universal territorial jurisdiction, and may only investigate and prosecute crimes committed within member states, crimes committed by nationals of member states, or crimes in situations referred to the Court by the United Nations Security Council.
   • The U.S. government has never been a member of the court.
   • Some countries have neither signed nor acceded to the Rome Statute. Some of them, including China and India, are critical of the Court.

Q11. Consider the following statements.

1. India has built Integrated check posts (ICPs) only on the borders with Bangladesh and Nepal.
2. On the Indian side, the Integrated check posts are built by the Land Port Authority of India (LPAI), which is under Ministry of Home Affairs.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
• India and Nepal recently launched the construction of integrated check post (ICP) at Nepalgunj.
• ICP will smoothen cross-border movement of cargo trucks by bringing customs and immigration facilities under one roof.
• This will be the third ICP on the India-Nepal border and similar facilities at Birgunj and Biratnagar were operationalised in April 2018 and January 2020. India has also built ICPs on the borders with neighbours such as Bangladesh and Pakistan.
• A portion on the Indian side is being built at Rupaidiha by Lands Ports Authority of India.

Q12. Who among the following are listed as the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups in Andaman & Nicobar Islands?

1. Jarawa
2. Toda
3. Sentinelese
4. Shompen
   Select the correct answer code: a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   b) 2, 3 and 4 only
   c) 1, 3 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• Name of the Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group(s) in Andaman & Nicobar Islands – Great Andamanese, Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese and Shompen. • Toda in Tamil Nadu

Q13. Laicite, recently seen in news is a) COVID-19 vaccine in trial stage
b) NASA’s Asteroid Redirect Mission
c) Secularism in France
d) None of the above

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Laïcité is the French word for secularism.

Q14. With reference to the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) systems, consider the following statements:

1. BOSS is an all-weather electronic surveillance system successfully designed and developed by Instruments Research & Development Establishment (IRDE), Dehradun.
2. The ASTRA Mk-I is the indigenously developed first Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Missile, which can be launched only from Sukhoi-30. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Raksha Mantri handed over three indigenously developed Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) systems to Army, Navy and Air Force at a function held in DRDO Bhawan.
• He handed over the Indian Maritime Situational Awareness System (IMSAS) to the Chief of Naval Staff , ASTRA Mk-I Missile to Air Chief Marshal and Border Surveillance System (BOSS) to the Chief of Army Staff.
• BOSS is An all-weather electronic surveillance system successfully designed and developed by Instruments Research & Development Establishment (IRDE), Dehradun. The system facilitates monitoring and surveillance by automatically detecting the intrusions in harsh high-altitude sub-zero temperature areas with remote operation capability.
• The IMSAS is high performance intelligent software system that provide Global Maritime Situational Picture, Marine planning tools and Analytical capabilities to
Indian Navy. Centre for Artificial Intelligence & Robotics (CAIR), Bengaluru and Indian Navy has jointly conceptualised and developed the product and the BEL, Bengaluru has implemented it.
• The ASTRA Mk-I is the indigenously developed first Beyond Visual Range (BVR) Missile, which can be launched from Sukhoi-30, Light Combat Aircraft (LCA), Mig-29 and Mig-29K. it was developed by Defence Research & Development Laboratory (DRDL) Hyderabad.

Q15. What is ‘SolarWinds hack’? a) Solar Storm
b) Cyber Attack
c) A group of asteroids
d) None of the above

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The ‘SolarWinds hack’, a cyberattack recently discovered in the United States, has emerged as one of the biggest ever targeted against the US government, its agencies and several other private companies. In fact, it is likely a global cyberattack.
• This is being called a ‘Supply Chain’ attack: Instead of directly attacking the federal government or a private organisation’s network, the hackers target a third-party vendor, which supplies software to them.
• In this case, the target was an IT management software called Orion, supplied by the Texas-based company SolarWinds.
• Orion has been a dominant software from SolarWinds with clients, which include over 33,000 companies. SolarWinds says 18,000 of its clients have been impacted.
• The hackers gained “access to victims via trojanized updates to SolarWinds’ Orion IT monitoring and management software. Once installed, the malware gave a backdoor entry to the hackers to the systems and networks of SolarWinds’ customers.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q16. With reference to the India and USA relations, consider the following statements:

1. Union Cabinet has approved MoU between India and USA for exchange of information in areas of mutual interest in the electricity sector.
2. Under the MoU, the two sides will identify energy-related issues and develop topics and possible agendas for the exchange of information and regulatory practices in areas of mutual interest.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Union Cabinet has approved MoU between India and USA for exchange of information in areas of mutual interest in the electricity sector.
• Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC), India and Federal Energy Regulatory Commission (FERC), United States of America (USA) will enter into a MoU for exchange of information and experiences in areas of mutual interest to both in the electricity sectors.
• The MoU will help in improving regulatory and policy framework for developing efficient whole sale power market and enhancing grid reliability.
• Under the MoU, the two sides will identify energy-related issues and develop topics and possible agendas for the exchange of information and regulatory practices in areas of mutual interest.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q17. With reference to the Department of Integrative Medicine, consider the following statements:

1. Ministry of AYUSH and AIIMS have decided to initiate work on setting up a Department of Integrative Medicine at AIIMS.
2. It may develop an integrated protocol with Ayurveda and Yoga for study on Post COVID treatment.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Ministry of AYUSH and AIIMS have decided to initiate work on setting up a Department of Integrative Medicine at AIIMS.
• This was decided in a joint visit and review by, Secretary, AYUSH and Director, AIIMS of the Centre for Integrative Medicine and Research (CIMR) at AIIMS, New Delhi.
• The CIMR receives notable support through the Centre of Excellence Scheme of the Ministry of AYUSH.
• It was decided that the Centre for Integrative Medicine and Research, CIMR, AIIMS may develop an integrated protocol with Ayurveda and Yoga for study on Post COVID treatment.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q18. With reference to the Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY), consider the following statements:

1. It aims to boost employment in formal sector and incentivize creation of new employment opportunities during the Covid recovery phase under Atmanirbhar Bharat Package 3.0.
2. Government of India will pay both 20% employees’ contribution and 20% employers’ contribution towards Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) in respect of new employees in establishments employing up to 1000 employees for two years.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• The Union Cabinet has given its approval for Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana (ABRY) to boost employment in formal sector and incentivize creation of new employment opportunities during the Covid recovery phase under Atmanirbhar Bharat Package 3.0.
• Government of India will provide subsidy for two years in respect of new employees engaged on or after 1st October, 2020 and up to 30th June, 2021.
• Government of India will pay both 12% employees’ contribution and 12% employers’ contribution i.e. 24% of wages towards Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF) in respect of new employees in establishments employing up to 1000 employees for two years.
• Government of India will pay only employees’ share of EPF contribution i.e. 12% of wages in respect of new employees in establishments employing more than 1000 employee for two years.
• An employee drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who was not working in any establishment registered with the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation (EPFO) before 1st October, 2020 and did not have a Universal Account Number or EPF Member account number prior to 1stOctober 2020 will be eligible for the benefit.
• Any EPF member possessing Universal Account Number (UAN) drawing monthly wage of less than Rs. 15000/- who made exit from employment during Covid pandemic from 01.03.2020 to 30.09.2020 and did not join employment in any EPF covered establishment up to 30.09.2020 will also be eligible to avail benefit.
• Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q19. With reference to the Better Than Cash Alliance, consider the following statements:

1. It was created in 2012 and was launched by UNESCO.
2. The Alliance has all UN countries as members which are committed to digitizing payments. Which of the given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
India and UN-Based Better Than Cash Alliance organized a joint Peer learning exchange on fintech solutions for responsible digital payments at the last mile.
• Based at the United Nations, the Better Than Cash Alliance is a partnership of governments, companies and international organizations that accelerates the transition from cash to responsible digital payments.
• The Alliance has 75 members which are committed to digitizing payments.
• The Alliance Secretariat works with members on their journey to digitize payments by:
o Providing advisory services based on their priorities. o Sharing action-oriented research and fostering peer learning on responsible practices.
o Conducting advocacy at national, regional and global level.
• It was created in 2012. It was launched by the United Nations Capital Development Fund, the United States Agency for International Development, the Bill & Melinda
Gates Foundation, Citigroup, the Ford Foundation, the Omidyar Network, and Visa Inc. Hence both statements are incorrect.

Q20. Consider the following statements regarding Brain fingerprinting.

1. Brain fingerprinting is a method of interrogation in which the accused’s participation in the crime is investigated by studying their brain’s response.
2. It is conducted to study the electrical behaviour of the human brain.
3. Supreme Court has ruled that brain mapping tests cannot be forced upon any individual without their consent and the test results cannot be admitted solely as evidence.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2
   b) 1 and 3
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
• Brain Electrical Oscillation Signature Profiling (BEOSP) also known as brain fingerprinting is a neuro psychological method of interrogation in which the accused’s participation in the crime is investigated by studying their brain’s response. The BEOSP test is carried out via a process known as electroencephalogram, conducted to study the electrical behaviour of the human brain.
• The BEOSP procedure does not involve a question answer session with the accused and is rather a neuro psychological study of their brain.
• In 2010, the Supreme Court passed a judgment in the Selvi versus State of Karnataka case where the bench observed that narco analysis, polygraph and brain mapping tests cannot be forced upon any individual without their consent and the test results cannot be admitted solely as evidence. However, any information or material discovered during the tests can be made part of the evidence, observed the bench.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. India Climate Change Knowledge Portal was recently launched by NITI Aayog
2. According to the Central government, India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
India Climate Change Knowledge Portal:
• Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has launched the ‘India Climate Change Knowledge Portal’.
• Objective: The Portal will help in disseminating knowledge among citizens about all the major steps the Government is taking at both national and international levels to address climate change issues.
• Benefit: It will be a single point Information resource which provides information on the different climate initiatives taken by various Line Ministries enabling users to access updated status on these initiatives.
• According to the Central government, India has practically achieved its pre-2020 climate action targets.

Q22. Consider the following statements.

1. While La Nina conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon, it has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon.
2. During El Nino, there is abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
• While El Nino (Spanish for ‘little boy’), the expression heard more commonly in India, is the abnormal surface warming observed along the eastern and central regions of the Pacific Ocean (region between Peru and Papua New Guinea), La Nina (Spanish for ‘little girl’) is an abnormal cooling of these surface waters.
• Together, the El Nino and La Nina phenomena are termed as El Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO). These are large-scale ocean phenomena which inflence the global weather — winds, temperature and rainfall. They have the ability to trigger extreme weather events like droughts, floods, hot and cold conditions, globally.
• While La Nina conditions enhance the rainfall associated with the Southwest monsoon, it has a negative impact on rainfall associated with the Northeast monsoon.

Q23. Consider the following statements regarding National Security Clause under the WTO rules.

1. National Security Clause is an exception that allows WTO members to breach their WTO obligations for purposes of national security.
2. If India invokes National Security Clause, it would allow India to impose tariffs on imports from one country while exempting other trading partners. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• National Security Exception laid out in Article XXI of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) allows WTO members to breach their WTO obligations for purposes of national security.
• Border hostilities potentially give India room to invoke the national security clause in the WTO rules. This would allow it to impose tariffs on imports from China while exempting other trading partners.

Q24. The Pilibhit Tiger Reserve which was recently awarded TX2 award for doubling the number of tigers in the past four years is in which state? a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Uttarakhand
c) Assam
d) Karnataka

Solution : a)
Explanation :- TX2 award:
• Launched recently, these awards were open to submissions from any site in a tiger range country that has achieved remarkable measurable progress since 2010.
o Site: An area having a functional tiger population, legally designated as a “site” under national legislation.
• Award winners were announced on 23rd November 2020 – the 10 year anniversary for the global TX2 goal.
• Sites will receive a small financial grant to be used to further tiger conservation.
• TX2 Award: It goes to one site that has achieved remarkable and measurable increase in its tiger population since 2010.
• Conservation Excellence Award: This award recognises one site that has achieved excellence in two or more of these five themes:
Pilibhit Tiger Reserve:
• Location: Pilibhit district, Lakhimpur Kheri District and Bahraich District of Uttar Pradesh
• The northern edge of the reserve lies along the Indo-Nepal border while the southern boundary is marked by the river Sharada and Khakra.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).

1. The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to ban the use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons.
2. IAEA was established through a United Nations Statute.
3. IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 and 2
   b) 3 Only
   c) 1 and 3
   d) 2 and 3 only

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is an international organization that seeks to promote the peaceful use of nuclear energy, and to inhibit its use for any military purpose, including nuclear weapons. The IAEA was established as an autonomous organisation on 29 July 1957. Though established independently of the United Nations through its own international treaty, the IAEA Statute, the IAEA reports to both the United Nations General Assembly and Security Council.

Q26. Consider the following statements with respect to Sahakar Pragya training module:

1. It is a capacity building initiative for the Women
2. It is a part of initiatives taken up by National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC)
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
• Recently, the Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare has unveiled ‘Sahakar Pragya’ training module.
• It is part of a series of initiatives taken up by NCDC to strengthen India’s cooperative societies.
• It is an innovative capacity building initiative for the farmers associated with such entities in the country.
• The 45 new training modules will impart training to primary cooperative societies in rural areas of the country.
• It embodies enhancing NCDC’s training capacity through an elaborate network of 18 Regional Training Centres across the country.

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding Chota Nagpur Plateau.

1. The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal and Chhattisgarh.
2. The Indo-Gangetic plain lies to the north and east of the plateau.
3. The plateau has been formed by continental uplift from forces acting deep inside the earth.
4. The Krishna River flows through Chota Nagpur Plateau.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only
   b) 1, 3 and 4 only
   c) 2, 3 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
• The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in eastern India, which covers much of Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Odisha, West Bengal and Chhattisgarh. The Indo-Gangetic plain lies to the north and east of the plateau, and the basin of the Mahanadi River lies to the south.
• The Chota Nagpur Plateau is a continental plateau—an extensive area of land thrust above the general land. The plateau has been formed by continental uplift from forces acting deep inside the earth.
• The Damodar River flows through Chota Nagpur Plateau.

Q28. Consider the following statements with respect to the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme

1. The scheme is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human Resource Development launched in 2016.
2. Arresting the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) in India is one of the prime motive of the scheme.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme:
• Launched in: 2015
• A joint initiative: Of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human Resource Development.
o This is being implemented through a national campaign and focussed multi sectoral action in 100 selected districts low in CSR, covering all States and UTs. • Objectives:
o Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination o Ensuring survival & protection of the girl child o Ensuring education and participation of the girl child • Need:
o Declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR): CSR is defined as the number of girls per 1000 of boys between 0-6 years of age. The decline from 945 in 1991 to 927 in 2001 and further to 918 in 2011 is alarming.
 Reason: Social construct discriminating against girls on the one hand, easy availability, affordability and subsequent misuse of diagnostic tools on the other hand.
o A major indicator of women disempowerment: CSR reflects both, pre-birth discrimination manifested through gender biased sex selection, and post birth discrimination against girls. Coordinated and convergent efforts are needed: To ensure survival, protection and empowerment of the girl child.

Q29. Consider the following statements with regard to the Election Commission of India’s power to conduct an election

1. The Election Commission is mandated under law to hold elections at any time within six months before the five-year term of the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly expires.
2. The Representation of People’s Act specifies circumstances under which elections can be deferred.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 2 is incorrect.
Legal obligation to conduct elections: The Election Commission (EC) is mandated under law to hold elections at any time within six months before the five-year term of the Lok Sabha or Legislative Assembly expires.
• The polls are timed in a way that the new Assembly or Lok Sabha is in place on the day of the dissolution of the outgoing House.
Circumstances under which EC decides to postpone an election:
• No specific legal provision: That specifies the circumstances under which elections can be deferred.
• Circumstances beyond EC’s control: Law and order, natural calamities like earthquakes and floods, or any other compelling circumstances would be guiding factors for the Commission to take a decision in the matter.
• Inputs from different stakeholders: The decision on postponement is usually made after taking inputs from the ground and the central and state governments.

Q30. Consider the following statements:

1. Sunderban is a world heritage site but not a Ramsar Site.
2. Goliath heron and Spoon-billed Sandpiper are found in Sundarbans.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About Sundarbans
• The Sundarbans comprises hundreds of islands and a network of rivers, tributaries and creeks in the delta of the Ganga and the Brahmaputra at the mouth of the Bay of Bengal in India and Bangladesh.
• The Indian Sundarbans covers 4,200 sq km.
• It comprises of the Sunderban Tiger Reserve of 2,585 sq km which is home to about
96 Royal Bengal Tigers (as per last census in 2020 )
• It is also a world heritage site and a Ramsar Site. 1 is incorrect.
• Out of the 428 birds listed, some, like the Masked Finfoot and Buffy fish owl, are recorded only from the Sunderbans.
• The area is home to nine out of 12 species of kingfishers found in the country as well rare species such as the Goliath heron and Spoon-billed Sandpiper. 2 is correct.
• The Indian Sunderbans are the most diverse of natural landscapes and accounts for 60 % of all mangrove forests in the country.

Q31. Which of the following factors exert influence over occurrence of flash droughts in India?

1. Anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions
2. El Nino Southern Oscillation
3. Air temperature over India.
   Select the correct code: a) 1 and 2
   b) 2 and 3
   c) 1 and 3
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
• Flash drought refers to a severe drought kind of situation that develops very rapidly.
o Flash droughts are those that occur very quickly, with soil moisture depleting rapidly.
o This happens because rains stay away for 15-20 days at a stretch.
o Normally, developing drought conditions take months, but these happen within a week or in two weeks’ time in abnormal conditions.
o In India, 82 per cent of such extreme weather events happen during the monsoon period.
• Factors behind: Several factors including atmospheric anomalies, anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions, summer monsoon precipitation, sea surface temperature, role of El Nino Southern Oscillation, and air temperature over India play an important role.

Q32. Roshni Act, sometimes seen in news is related to a) New Delhi
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Punjab
d) None of the Above

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
• The Roshni Act was originally called the Jammu and Kashmir State Land (Vesting of Ownership Rights to the Occupants) Act, 2001.
• As per the Act, the ownership rights of State land would be transferred to its occupants on the payment of a fee fixed by the government.
• In October 2020, the Jammu and Kashmir High Court held the Roshni Act as
‘unconstitutional’.

Q33. Consider the following statements regarding Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Settlement) Scheme 2019:

1. The Scheme is a one-time measure for liquidation of disputes in current GST regime.
2. Any person who wants to make a voluntary disclosure can file a declaration under the scheme.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The scheme is a one-time measure for liquidation of past disputes of Central Excise, Service Tax and 26 other indirect tax enactments.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
Any person falling under the following categories is eligible, subject to other conditions, to file a declaration under the Scheme:
(a) Who has a show cause notice (SCN) for demand of duty/tax or one or more pending appeals arising out of such notice where the final hearing has not taken place as on 30.06.2019.
(b) Who has been issued SCN for penalty and late fee only and where the final hearing has not taken place as on 30.06.2019. (c) Who has recoverable arrears pending.
(d) Who has cases under investigation and audit where the duty/tax involved has been quantified and communicated to him or admitted by him in a statement on or before 30th June, 2019.
(e) Who wants to make a voluntary disclosure.
Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Q34. Consider the following statements:

1. Krishi Udaan scheme is launched by Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
2. Nikshay Poshan Yojana is a scheme related to providing nutrition for school children. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
• Krishi Udaan scheme is launched by Ministry of Civil Aviation.
Hence Statement 1 is incorrect.
• Nikshay Poshan Yojana is a scheme related to providing nutritional support to Tuberculosis patients.
Hence Statement 2 is incorrect

Q35. Which one of the following statements best describes the term “obliquity of a planet”? a) It refers to a dimensionless parameter that determines the amount by which its orbit around another body deviates from a perfect circle.
b) It refers to the motion of a planet’s axis of rotation, which does not point towards a fixed direction in the sky through time.
c) It is referred to as the angle between its equatorial plane and the orbital plane, i.e the tilt of a planet.
d) It is referred to as the angle between a reference plane and the orbital plane or axis of direction of the orbiting object.

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• In astronomy, axial tilt, also known as obliquity, is the angle between an object’s rotational axis and its orbital axis, or, equivalently, the angle between its equatorial plane and orbital plane. It differs from orbital inclination.
• Orbital inclination measures the tilt of an object’s orbit around a celestial body. It is expressed as the angle between a reference plane and the orbital plane or axis of direction of the orbiting object.

Q36. Consider the following statements with respect to the Clean Energy Transitions Programme (CETP)

1. It is an initiative to accelerate global clean-energy transitions, particularly in major emerging economies.
2. It was launched by the International Energy Agency (IEA).
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• Clean Energy Transitions Programme (CETP): The IEA CETP leverages the IEA’s unique energy expertise across all fuels and technologies to accelerate global clean-energy transitions, particularly in major emerging economies. o CETP activities include collaborative analytical work, technical cooperation, training and capacity building and strategic dialogues.

Q37. Consider the following statements:

1. The New START treaty caps to 1,550 the number of nuclear warheads that can be deployed by Nato and Russia.
2. The New START Treaty does not provide mutual on-site inspections. Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
New Start Treaty
• The Treaty between the United States of America and the Russian Federation on Measures for the Further Reduction and Limitation of Strategic Offensive Arms also known as the New START Treaty.
• The New Start Treaty is an agreement signed by the Obama administration with Russia that caps Russian and U.S. nuclear arsenal.
• It is a successor to the START framework of 1991 (at the end of the Cold War) that limited both sides to 1,600 strategic delivery vehicles and 6,000 warheads.
• It entered into force on February 5, 2011.
• Conditions of the treaty:
o Cap on nuclear arsenals: The New START treaty caps to 1,550 the number of nuclear warheads that can be deployed by Moscow and Washington, who control the world’s largest nuclear arsenals. 1 is incorrect.
o Each Party has the flexibility to determine for itself the structure of its strategic forces within the aggregate limits of the Treaty.
o Inspections: The New START Treaty provides for 18 on-site inspections per year. 2 is incorrect.
o There are two basic types of inspections. o Type One inspections focus on sites with deployed and non-deployed strategic systems;
o Type Two inspections focus on sites with only non-deployed strategic systems.

Q38. Consider the following statements:

1. The judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI, the Governor of the concerned state, and the Chief Justice of the High Court.
2. There is no minimum age fixed for high Court judges.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
• The procedure of appointment of judges to the SC and HCs is provided under Article 124 and Article 217 respectively.
• These Articles state that judges of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and other judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts as the President of India may deem necessary.
• The judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President in consultation with the CJI, the Governor of the concerned state, and the Chief Justice of the High Court. 1 is correct.
Eligibility to become a High Court judge:
• A person to be appointed as a judge of a high court, should be a citizen of India.
• Further, He should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for ten years or should have been an advocate of the high court(s) for ten years.
• There is no minimum age fixed for high Court judges. 2 is correct.

Q39. With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements:

1. It is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines.
2. The awards are announced on the occasion of Independence Day every year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
This year the President of India has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards.
• Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian Awards of the country conferred in three categories, namely –
o Padma Vibhushan: For Exceptional and distinguished service. o Padma Bhushan: For Distinguished service of high order. o Padma Shri: For distinguished service in any field.
• Disciplines in which awarded: It is given for distinguished and exceptional achievements/service in all fields of activities/disciplines.
• Eligibility: All persons without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex are eligible for these awards. However, Government servants including those working with PSUs, except doctors and scientists, are not eligible for these Awards.
• Timeline: The awards are announced on the occasion of Republic Day every year. These awards are conferred by the President of India at ceremonial functions which are held at Rashtrapati Bhawan usually around March/ April every year.
• Award committee:
o The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
o All nominations received for Padma Awards are placed before the Padma Awards Committee headed by the Cabinet Secretary, which is constituted by the PM every year.
o The recommendations of the committee are submitted to the PM and the President for approval.
o The awardees are then presented a certificate and a medallion. The recipients are also given a small replica of the medallion, which they can wear during any ceremonial/State functions etc., if the awardees so desire. Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q40. With reference to the Padma Awards, consider the following statements:

1. The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name.
2. The award is not conferred posthumously. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
This year the President has approved conferment of 119 Padma Awards including 1 duo case (in a duo case, the Award is counted as one) as per list below.
• The list comprises 7 Padma Vibhushan, 10 Padma Bhushan and 102 Padma Shri Awards. 29 of the awardees are women and the list also includes 10 persons from the category of Foreigners/NRI/PIO/OCI, 16 Posthumous awardees and 1 transgender awardee. Padma Vibhushan (7)

1. Shinzo Abe (Japan) – Public Affairs
2. S P Balasubramaniam (Posthumous) – Art
3. Dr. Belle Monappa Hegde – Medicine
4. Narinder Singh Kapany (Posthumous) – Science and Engineering
5. Maulana Wahiduddin Khan – Others: Spiritualism
6. B. B. Lal – Others: Archaeology
7. Sudarshan Sahoo – Art Padma Bhushan (10)
8. Krishnan Nair Shantakumari Chithra – Art
9. Tarun Gogoi (Posthumous) – Public Affairs
10. Chandrashekhar Kambara – Literature and Education
11. Sumitra Mahajan – Public Affairs
12. Nripendra Misra – Civil Service
13. Ram Vilas Paswan (Posthumous) – Public Affairs
14. Keshubhai Patel (Posthumous) – Public Affairs
15. Kalbe Sadiq (Posthumous) – Others: Spiritualism
16. Rajnikant Devidas Shroff – Trade and Industry 10. Tarlochan Singh – Public Affairs
    o The award does not amount to a title and cannot be used as a suffix or prefix to the awardees’ name. o The total number of awards to be given in a year (excluding posthumous awards and to NRI/foreigners/OCIs) should not be more than 120. o The award is normally not conferred posthumously. However, in highly deserving cases, the Government could consider giving an award posthumously. o A higher category of Padma award can be conferred on a person only after a gap of five years. However, in highly deserving cases, a relaxation can be made by the Awards Committee.
    Hence only statement 1 is correct.

Q41. With reference to the Climate Adaptation Summit 2021, consider the following statements:

1. The Netherlands government hosted an online international Climate Adaptation Summit (CAS Online) on 25 January 2021.
2. The summit will have a significant focus on securing new investments to ensure that millions of smallholder farmers can adapt to the stresses of climate on food production. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Prime Minister Modi addressed the Climate Adaptation Summit 2021.
• The Netherlands government hosted an online international Climate Adaptation Summit (CAS Online) on 25 January 2021.
• The summit will have a significant focus on securing new investments to ensure that millions of smallholder farmers can adapt to the stresses of climate on food production. During the summit, PM Modi said that –
• We are targeting 450 gigawatt of renewable energy capacity by 2030.
• We are promoting LED lights and saving 38 million tons of carbon-di-oxide emissions annually.
• We are going to restore 26 million hectares of degraded land by 2030.
• We are providing clean cooking fuel to 80 million rural households.
• We are connecting 64 million households to piped water supply. Hence both statements are correct.

Q42. “AYU SAMVAD” (My Health My Responsibility) is one of the largest public awareness campaign program on AYURVEDA and COVID 19 PANDEMIC. It is being organized by:
a) All India Institute of Ayurveda New Delhi
b) NITI Aayog
c) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
d) None of the above

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
“AYU SAMVAD” (My Health My Responsibility) is one of the largest public awareness campaign program on AYURVEDA and COVID 19 PANDEMIC.
• It is being organized by All India Institute of Ayurveda New Delhi, as envisioned & supported by Ministry of AYUSH.
• More than 5 lac lectures will be organized across the nation by Ayurveda Physicians for citizens of India.
• The main objective of the campaign is to create awareness through Lecture series to make common people aware about the theme “Ayurveda for COVID 19 Pandemic”.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q43. A large-scale tri-service joint amphibious exercise AMPHEX – 21 was conducted in:
a) Andaman & Nicobar group of islands
b) Lakshadweep
c) Rann of Kutch
d) Ladakh

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
A large-scale tri-service joint amphibious exercise AMPHEX – 21 was conducted in Andaman & Nicobar group of islands from 21 – 25 Jan 2021.
• The exercise involved participation of Naval ships, amphibious troops of the Army and different types of aircraft from the Air force.
• The exercise was aimed at validating India’s capabilities to safeguard the territorial integrity of it’s island territories. It also sought to enhance operational synergy and joint warfighting capabilities amongst the three Services.
• The exercise involved multi-faceted maritime operations by synergised employment of amphibious assault ships, surveillance platforms, execution of maritime air strikes and complex manoeuvres at sea.
• Ex KAVACH for defence of Andaman & Nicobar Islands formed a part of AMPHEX – 21.
• A joint intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance exercise under the aegis of HQ Integrated Defence Staff was also run concurrently to achieve Maritime Domain Awareness by employment of a multitude of sensors.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q44. Which of the following is India’s own first indigenously designed and developed fighter aircraft?
a) Tejas
b) Marut
c) Hansa
d) Saras

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Nehru Science Centre, Mumbai re-dedicated its artefacts of Rail Locomotives that have been restored during the lockdown period, for the visitors on the occasion of India’s 72nd Republic Day.
• India’s own first indigenously designed and developed fighter aircraft Marut will now be available for public viewing.
• The DC Electric loco no 20024NVCP2 was commissioned in 1938 on Great Indian Peninsular Railway and was used to haul passenger trains on the Kalyan-Pune section for 40 years. o It has the distinction of hauling the prestigious Deccan Queen from Mumbai to Pune.
o DC Electric loco no 20024NVCP2 is one of the first Electric locomotives inducted into service after the introduction of Electric traction in Indian sub-continent.
Marut was initially developed to cross the supersonic speed but could never touch Mach 1, hence the record is now with the Tejas LCA. A total of 147 Marut were built, and the first unit was inducted by IAF in 1967. HF-24 Marut conducted its maiden flight in 1961. While Marut played a big role during the 1971 Indo-Pak war at the Longewala border, by 1980s, it became obsolete and was phased out by 1990. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q45. Dhannipur mosque project, often mentioned in news, is located in:
a) Madhya Pradesh
b) Bihar
c) Assam
d) Uttar Pradesh

Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The Dhannipur mosque project was formally launched on Republic Day at the five-acre plot in Dhannipur village of Ayodhya Uttar Pradesh.
• The plot was allotted by the Uttar Pradesh government on the directions of the Supreme Court in the Babri Masjid Ram Janmabhoomi title suit.
• The Indo-Islamic Cultural Foundation (IICF) is overseeing the construction of the mosque.
• The project would take around 30 months to be completed.
• The project comprises three parts: a mosque based on a modern design; a multi-speciality 200-bed hospital and community kitchen; and an Indo-Islamic Cultural Research Centre.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q46. With reference to the Palestine, consider the following statements:

1. Palestine is recognized officially as the State of Palestine by the United Nations and other entities.
2. It is a de jure sovereign state in Western Asia claiming the West Bank (bordering Israel and Jordan) and Gaza Strip (bordering Israel and Egypt) with Jerusalem as the designated capital. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
U.S. President Joe Biden’s administration announced it was restoring relations with the Palestinians and renewing aid to Palestinian refugees.
• It is a reversal of the Donald Trump administration’s cutoff and a key element of its new support for a two-state solution to the decades-old conflict agreed to by Israelis and Palestinians.
• Palestine is recognized officially as the State of Palestine by the United Nations and other entities.
• It is a de jure sovereign state in Western Asia claiming the West Bank (bordering Israel and Jordan) and Gaza Strip (bordering Israel and Egypt) with Jerusalem as the designated capital, although its administrative center is currently located in Ramallah.
• The entirety of territory claimed by the State of Palestine has been occupied since 1948, first by Egypt and Jordan and then by Israel after the Six-Day War in 1967.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q47. With reference to the Bharat Parv 2021, consider the following statements:

1. Bharat Parv is being celebrated as part of Republic Day celebrations since 2000.
2. It is organized by the Ministry of Tourism. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Bharat Parv 2021, a festival to celebrate the spirit of India has begun. The festival is being organised on a virtual platform www.bharatparv2021.com this year from today till 31st of January.
• Bharat Parv is being celebrated as part of Republic Day celebrations since 2016.
• Objective: To generate a patriotic fervour, promote the rich cultural diversity of the country and to popularize the idea of Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat.
• Organized by: The Ministry of Tourism in collaboration with other central Ministries.
• Duration: 26th to 31st January 2019 (The 5-day event is a part of Republic Day Celebrations).
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q48. With reference to the copra, consider the following statements:

1. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has recently given its approval for the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of copra for 2021 season.
2. Copra is the dried meat or kernel of the coconut, which is the fruit of the coconut palm (Cocos nucifera).
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has given its approval for the Minimum Support Price (MSP) of copra for 2021 season.
• Copra is the dried meat or kernel of the coconut, which is the fruit of the coconut palm (Cocos nucifera). Coconut oil is extracted from copra, making it an important agricultural commodity for many coconut-producing countries.
• The MSP for Fair Average Quality (FAQ) of milling copra has been increased, by Rs.375/-, to Rs. 10335/- per quintal for 2021 season from Rs. 9960/- per quintal in 2020.
• The approval is based on recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
• The increase in MSP for copra for 2021 season is in line with the principle of fixing the MSP at a level of at least 1.5 times the all India weighted average cost of production which was announced by the Government in the Budget 2018-19.
• The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Limited (NAFED) and
National Cooperative Consumer Federation of India Limited (NCCF) will continue to act as Central Nodal Agencies to undertake price support operations at the MSP in the coconut growing States.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q49. The disputed Belagavi city is part of which of the following state?
a) Karnataka
b) Kerala
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Madhya Pradesh

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Maharashtra Chief Minister said the disputed border area between Maharashtra and Karnataka should be made an Union Territory until the matter is heard by the Supreme Court. This sparked off a strong reaction in Karnataka.
• Maharashtra has been claiming that Belagavi, Karwar and Nipani should be the part of that State as they are Marathi-speaking areas.
• The erstwhile Bombay Presidency, a multilingual province, included the present-day Karnataka districts of Bijapur, Belgaum, Dharwar and Uttara-Kannada (previously North Kanara).
• The Belagavi/Belgaum region at the border of Maharashtra and Karnataka comprises both Kannada and Marathi speakers.
• In 1948, the Belgaum municipality requested that the district, having a predominantly Marathi-speaking population, be incorporated into the proposed Maharashtra state.
• However, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which divided states on linguistic and administrative lines, made Belgaum a part of the then Mysore State (which was renamed Karnataka in 1973).
• The area has been under dispute since then. The Maharashtra Ekikaran Samiti, formed in 1948, has been fighting for a merger of 800-odd villages in Karnataka with Maharashtra.
• In 2014, the Karnataka government renamed Belgaum as Belagavi.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q50. Sigur Plateau is a plateau located in:
a) Tamil Nadu
b) Sikkim
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Ladakh

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Supreme Court appointed conservationist Nandita Hazarika as Member of a Technical Committee constituted by it on October 14 last year to hear complaints by land owners against the action taken by the Nilgris Collector, which included “arbitrary variance in acreage of the elephant corridor.”
• On October 14, the top court upheld the Tamil Nadu government’s authority to notify an ‘elephant corridor’ and protect the migratory path of the animals through the Nilgiri biosphere reserve, the largest protected forest area in India, spanning across Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala.
• The corridor is situated in the ecologically fragile Sigur plateau.
• Sigur Plateau is a plateau in the north and east of Nilgiri District in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu.
• It connects the Western and the Eastern Ghats and sustains elephant populations and their genetic diversity.
• It has the Nilgiri Hills on its southwestern side and the Moyar River Valley on its north-eastern side. The elephants cross the plateau in search of food and water.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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