27 MAY CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to Informational Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital
Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021-

1. The content available on Platform will be self-classified by Publishers.
2. There will be a three-level Grievance Redressal Mechanism with varying levels of
   self-regulation.
3. Oversight Mechanism will be done by Ministry of Home Affairs.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)

Explanation:
Recently, the government has notified Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines
and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021.
These new rules broadly deal with social media and over-the-top (OTT) platforms.
These rules have been framed in exercise of powers under section 87 (2) of the Information
Technology (IT) Act, 2000 and in supersession of the earlier Information Technology
(Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011.
Rules for News Publishers and OTT Platforms and Digital Media:
For OTT:
Self-Classification of Content:
The OTT platforms, called as the publishers of online curated content in the rules, would
self-classify the content into five age based categories- U (Universal), U/A 7+, U/A 13+,
U/A 16+, and A (Adult).
Parental Lock:
Platforms would be required to implement parental locks for content classified as U/A 13+
or higher, and reliable age verification mechanisms for content classified as “A”.
Display Rating:
Shall prominently display the classification rating specific to each content or programme
together with a content descriptor informing the user about the nature of the content, and
advising on viewer description (if applicable) at the beginning of every programme enabling
the user to make an informed decision, prior to watching the programme.
For Publishers of News on Digital Media :
They would be required to observe Norms of Journalistic Conduct of the Press Council of
India and the Programme Code under the Cable Television Networks Regulation Act 1995
thereby providing a level playing field between the offline (Print, TV) and digital media.
Grievance Redressal Mechanism:
A three-level grievance redressal mechanism has been established under the rules with
different levels of self-regulation.
Level-I: Self-regulation by the publishers;
Level-II: Self-regulation by the self-regulating bodies of the publishers;
Level-III: Oversight mechanism.
Self-regulation by the Publisher:
Publisher shall appoint a Grievance Redressal Officer based in India who shall be
responsible for the redressal of grievances received by it.
The officer shall take decision on every grievance received by it within 15 days.
Self-Regulatory Body:
There may be one or more self-regulatory bodies of publishers.
Such a body shall be headed by a retired judge of the SC, a High Court or independent
eminent person and have not more than six members.
Such a body will have to register with the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.
This body will oversee the adherence by the publisher to the Code of Ethics and address
grievances that have not been resolved by the publisher within 15 days.
Oversight Mechanism:
Ministry of Information and Broadcasting shall formulate an oversight mechanism.
It shall publish a charter for self-regulating bodies, including Codes of Practices. It shall
establish an Inter-Departmental Committee for hearing grievances.

Q2. With reference to Opium Cultivation in India, consider the following statements-

1. Manufacture and Control over Opium Cultivation in India is given to respective state governments.

2. Currently Opium is cultivated in 3 states only.
3. The opium can be cultivated in only such tracts which are notified by the Government.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Opium Cultivation In India
After independence, the control over cultivation and manufacture of opium became
responsibility of the Central Government with effect from April, 1950.
At present the Narcotics Commissioner along with the subordinates exercises all powers
and performs all functions relating to superintendence of the cultivation of the opium
poppy and production of opium.
The Commissioner derives this power from the Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic
Substances Act 1985 and Narcotic Drugs & Psychotropic Substances Rules, 1985.
License for manufacture of certain types of narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances
as well as permits for export and import of narcotic drugs, psychotropic and controlled
substances are issued with the approval and permission of the Narcotics
Commissioner.
The Government of India announces the licensing policy for cultivation of opium poppy
every year, prescribing the minimum qualifying yield for issue of or renewal of licence,
maximum area that can be cultivated by an individual cultivator, the maximum benefit
that can be allowed to a cultivator for damage due to natural causes, etc.
The opium poppy can be cultivated only in such tracts as are notified by the
Government.
At present these tracts are confined to three States,viz. Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and
Uttar Pradesh.
Mandsaur district of Madhya Pradesh and Chittorgarh and Jhalawar Districts of Rajasthan
constitute about 80% of the total area cultivated.
India is one of the few countries internationally permitted (by the United Nations Office on
Drugs and Crime) to cultivate opium poppy for export.
Uses
Opium is unique in its therapeutic value and is indispensable in the medical world.
It also finds use in Homeopathy and Ayurveda or Unani systems of indigenous medicines.
The opium, which is used as Analgesics, Anti-Tussive, Anti spasmodic and as a source of
edible seed-oil, acts as a medicinal herb

Q3. Consider the following statements-

1. Sankalp se Siddhi-(Village and Digital Connect Drive) has been launched by TRIFED.
2. Tech for Tribal Program aims to transform 5 crore Tribal Entrepreneurs by capacity
   building and imparting entrepreneurship skills.
3. Van Dhan Vikas Vikas Yojana is joint initiative of Ministry of Environment, Forest
   and Climate Change and Ministry of Agriculture and Farmer’s Welfare.

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 3 only

Solution: a)

Explanation:
The Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED), under the
Ministry of Tribal Affairs, has launched “Sankalp se Siddhi” – Village and Digital Connect
Drive.
The main aim of this drive is to activate the Van Dhan Vikas Kendras (VDVKs) in the
villages.
Tech For Tribals:
Tech For Tribals program aims to transform 5 crore Tribal Entrepreneurs by capacity
building and imparting entrepreneurship skills to tribal forest produce gatherers enrolled
under the Pradhan Mantri Van Dhan Yojana (PMVDY).
The Van Dhan Vikas Yojana is an initiative of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and TRIFED. It
was launched to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.
The program will ensure higher success rate of the Tribal Entrepreneurs by enabling and
empowering them to run their business with marketable products with quality
certifications.
Van Dhan Vikas Kendras:
Van Dhan Vikas Kendras have been provided by Van Dhan Vikas Yojana.
Van Dhan Vikas Kendra (VDVKs) are for providing skill upgradation and capacity building
training to tribals and setting up of primary processing and value addition facilities.
Tribals are trained here and then provided with working capital to add value to the
products, which they collect from the jungle.

Q4. With reference to Tribunals in India, consider the following statements-

1. They were originally part of Indian Constitution.
2. Finance Act, 2017 empowered the central governments to notify rules on
   qualification of members, terms and conditions of service.
3. Article 323-A deals with subjects like Taxation, Industrial and Labour, foreign
   exchange whereas Article 323-B deals with Administrative Tribunals.
   Select the correct answer using the code below-
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 only
   c) 1 and 2 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: b)
Explanation:
Tribunals:
It is a quasi-judicial institution that is set up to deal with problems such as resolving
administrative or tax-related disputes.
It performs a number of functions like adjudicating disputes, determining rights between
contesting parties, making an administrative decision, reviewing an existing administrative
decision and so forth.
Constitutional Provisions:
 Tribunals were not originally a part of theConstitution.
 The 42nd Amendment Act 1976 introduced provision for tribunals in accordance
with the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
 The Amendment introduced Part XIV-A to the Constitution, which deals with
‘Tribunals’ and contains two articles:
Article 323A:
 It deals with Administrative Tribunals. These are quasi-judicial institutions that
resolve disputes related to the recruitment and service conditions of persons
engaged in public service.
Article 323B:
 It deals with tribunals for other subjects such as Taxation, Industrial and labour,
Foreign exchange, import and export, Land reforms, Food, Ceiling on urban
property, Elections to Parliament and state legislatures, Rent and tenancy rights.

Q5. “Jambadhani/Jambandi System” frequently seen in the news is a-
a) A land record agreement
b) A trade agreement between Agriculture Produce Market Committee
c) Procurement agreement signed by Govt
d) None of the above

Solution: a)

Explanation:
Jamabandi(Record of Rights)
It is a document prepared as part of record-of-right in every revenue estate. It contains
entries regarding Ownership, cultivation and up-to-date of various rights in land. It is
revised every five years when a Jamabandi is prepared by Patwari and attested by Revenue
Officer.
Jamabandhi is a legal agreement proving that they have the right to till leased land, in
order to get paid for procured crops. FCI order stipulates that tenant farmers
and sharecroppers must produce a jamabandhi.

Q6. With reference to the coral reefs, consider the following statements:

1. Fringing reef grows seaward directly from the shore.
2. When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk
   entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed.
3. Barrier reefs are not separated from land.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 2 and 3 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution: a)
Explanation:
The most common type of reef is the fringing reef. This type of reef grows seaward directly
from the shore. They form borders along the shoreline and surrounding islands.
When a fringing reef continues to grow upward from a volcanic island that has sunk
entirely below sea level, an atoll is formed. Atolls are usually circular or oval in shape, with
an open lagoon in the center.
Barrier reefs are similar to fringing reefs in that they also border a shoreline; however,
instead of growing directly out from the shore, they are separated from land by an expanse
of water. This creates a lagoon of open, often deep water between the reef and the shore.

Q7. With reference to the supermoon, consider the following statements:

1. It occurs when the Moon’s orbit is closest to the Earth at the same time that the Moon
   is full.
2. Lunar perigee is when the Moon is closest to Earth on its orbit.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: c)

Explanation:
 A supermoon occurs when the Moon’s orbit is closest to the Earth at the same time
that the Moon is full.
 As the Moon orbits the Earth, there is a point of time when the distance between
the two is the least (called the perigee when the average distance is about 360,000
km from the Earth) and a point of time when the distance is the most (called the
apogee when the distance is about 405,000 km from the Earth).
 Now, when a full Moon appears at the point when the distance between the Earth
and the Moon is the least, not only does it appear to be brighter but it is also larger
than a regular full moon.
 According to NASA, the term supermoon was coined by astrologer Richard Nolle in
1979.
 In a typical year, there may be two to four full supermoons and two to four new
supermoons in a row.

Q8. With reference to Power Sector of India, consider the following statements-

1. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is the regulator of power sector.
2. CERC is a statutory body.
3. Energy Saving Certificate are tradeable under Perform and Trade Scheme.
4. Under Renewable Energy Electricity Mechanism, a generator can generate
   electricity through renewable source.
   Select the correct answer using the code below-
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 1, 2 and 3 only
   c) 3 and 4 only
   d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution: d)
Explanation:
Renewable Energy Certificates (REC):
 Under the REC mechanism, a generator can generate electricity through the
renewable resources in any part of the country.
 For the electricity part, the generator receives the cost equivalent to that from any
conventional source while the environment attribute is sold through the exchanges
at the market determined price.
 The obligated entity from any part of the country can purchase these RECs to meet
its RPO (Renewable Purchase Obligation) compliance.
 Obligated entities may either purchase renewable energy or can purchase RECs to
meet their RPO set under RPO of their respective States.
Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts):
 These are the tradable certificates under the Perform, Achieve, Trade (PAT) Scheme
of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

 It is a market-based mechanism to incentivise energy efficiency in large energy-
intensive industries.

Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
 CERC is a regulator of the power sector in India.
 It intends to promote competition, efficiency and economy in bulk power markets,
improve the quality of supply, promote investments and advise the government on
the removal of institutional barriers to bridge the demand supply gap.
 It is a statutory body functioning with quasi-judicial status under the Electricity Act
2003.

Q9. National Mission on Cultural Mapping was launched by
a) Geological Survey of India (GSI)
b) Ministry of Culture
c) Archaeological Survey of India
d) Ministry of Finance

Solution: b)
Explanation:
National Mission on Cultural Mapping
 National Mission on Cultural Mapping (NMCM) has been set up by the Ministry of
Culture in 2017.
 Cultural mapping is a process to identify and document the cultural resources or
assets of a community.
 Mission will compile data of artists, art forms & geo location with inputs from
Central Ministries, State Governments & art/culture bodies.
 The details of this undertaking are being collated by the Centre of Cultural
Resources and Training (CCRT) in New Delhi, with the help of state governments.
o Established in 1979, CCRT is a premier autonomous institution that works
to strengthen the cultural foundation of the country by making education
culture-based and meaningful.
Objectives:
 It will identify, collect and record cultural assets and resources. It correlates this
to planning and strategizing.
 It mentions a portal and a database listing organisations, spaces, facilities,
festivals and events.
 This database can be used to preserve culture and provide or ameliorate
livelihoods.
 Creating a Unique Identification Code for every artist/ institution to facilitate
schemes.
There’s a Hamari Sanskriti Hamari Pahchan Abhiyan for “cultural awareness”.

Q10. Which among the following will be losers when Rupee will depreciate?

1. People Importing from Outside
2. People Travelling Abroad
3. People exporting from India
4. People Investing Abroad
5. People seeking Medical Education Abroad
6. Foreign Tourists in India
7. People receiving remittances from abroad

Select the correct answer using the code below-
a) 1,2,3 and 7 only
b) 1,2,4 and 5 only
c) 2,3,4,6 and 7 only
d) 1,2,5,6 and 7 only

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Recently, the Indian Rupee depreciated to a nine- month low of 75.4 against the USD, it is
one of the biggest losers among the emerging market currencies.
Impact of Depreciating Rupee:
Losers:
 People Importing from outside.
 People seeking foreign education.
 People travelling abroad.
 People investing abroad.
 People seeking medical treatment abroad etc.
Gainers:
 People exporting from India.
 People receiving remittances from Non Resident Indian (NRI).
 Foreign tourists as travel to India gets cheaper.