1-3 NOV CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to Star campaigners

1.Recognised political parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections

2.The travel expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates of their parties.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

• The Election Commission registers political parties for the purpose of elections and grants them recognition as national or state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
• The other parties are simply declared as registered unrecognised parties.
• The recognition granted by the Commission to the parties determines their right to certain privileges like allocation of the party symbols, provision of time for political broadcasts on the state-owned television and radio stations and access to electoral rolls.
• Further, the recognized parties need only one proposer for filing the nomination. 
• Star campaigners:

o These recognised parties are allowed to have forty “star campaigners” during the time of elections and the registered–unrecognized parties are allowed to have twenty “star campaigners”. o Section 77(1) of the Representation of People Act, 1951 read with Guidelines for Star Campaigners issued by the Election Commission, from time to time, makes selection/revocation of ‘star campaigners’ the sole prerogative of the political party.

• The travel expenses of these star campaigners are not included in the election expenditure of the candidates of their parties.
• Every national party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use throughout the country.
• Similarly, every state party is allotted a symbol exclusively reserved for its use in the state or states in which it is so recognised. A registered-unrecognised party, on the other hand, can select a symbol from a list of free symbols.
• The national parties and state parties are also known as all-India parties and regional parties respectively.

Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to Army Aviation Corps

1.The origin of the AAC can be traced back to the raising of the Army Aviation wing of the Royal Air Force in India in 1942.

2.It draws its officers and men from all arms of the Army, including a significant number from the artillery.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

The evolution of the Army Aviation Corps (AAC)

• The origin of the AAC can be traced back to the raising of the Army Aviation wing of the Royal Air Force in India in 1942.
• Later on, there was a subsequent formation of the first Indian Air Observation Post in August 1947.
• The role played by Indian Air Observation Post:  
  • The Air Observation Post units primarily acted as artillery spotters which are the elements that help the artillery in directing the fire and also giving air support to ground forces.  
  • In the wars of 1965 and 1971, the Air Observation Post helicopters played a key role in the battlefields by flying close to the enemy lines and helping ground assets spot targets.
• Separate formation: The Corps was raised as a separate formation on November 1 in 1986.  
  • It now draws its officers and men from all arms of the Army, including a significant number from the artillery.
• Contributions:
  • Immediately after raising, the units of the Corps were pressed into action in Operation Pawan by the Indian Peacekeeping Forces, in the mostly jungle areas of Sri Lanka against the Tamil Tigers. 
  • Ever since AAC helicopters have been an inseparable part of fighting formations in all major conflict scenarios, and a life-saving asset in peace times.
  • Last year, Indian President Ram also presented the President’s Colours to the Army Aviation Corps in a ceremonial parade held at Army Aviation Base at Nashik Road.

Q3. Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Storms

1.The tropical cyclones that form over the Atlantic Ocean or the eastern Pacific Ocean are called typhoons.

2.The tropical cyclones that form in the Northwest Pacific are called hurricanes. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : d)

Explanation :-

About Tropical cyclones or hurricanes

• Location: They use warm, moist air as fuel and therefore form over warm ocean waters near the equator.
• Mechanism :
  • When the warm, moist air rises upward from the surface of the ocean, it creates an area of low air pressure below.  o After this, the air from the surrounding areas, which has higher pressure, enters this space, eventually rising when it becomes warm and moist too.
  • As the warm and moist air continues to rise, the surrounding air will keep entering the area of low air pressure.  o Ultimately, when the warm air rises and cools off, the water in the air forms clouds.
  • And this corresponding system of clouds and winds continues to grow and spin, fuelled by the ocean’s heat and the water that evaporates from its surface.
  • As such storm systems rotate faster and faster, an eye forms in the center.
• Direction:   
  • Storms that form towards the north of the equator rotate counter-clockwise. 
  • On the other hand, those that form south of the equator spin clockwise because of the rotation of the Earth on its axis.
• No difference between a hurricane and a tropical storm o Depending on where they occur, hurricanes may be called typhoons or cyclones. 
  • As per NASA, the scientific name for all these kinds of storms is tropical cyclones.  o The tropical cyclones that form over the Atlantic Ocean or the eastern Pacific Ocean are called hurricanes.
  • On the other hand, tropical cyclones that form in the Northwest Pacific are called typhoons.

Q4. VAIBHAV Summit, recently in news, is a/an

1. Collaborative initiative by S&T and Academic Organisations of India including Department of S&T, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
2. Initiative to bring out the comprehensive roadmap to leverage the expertise and knowledge of Indian researchers for solving emerging challenges. 

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

• Recently, the Prime Minister of India inaugurated the Vaishwik Bharatiya Vaigyanik (VAIBHAV) Summit, a global virtual summit of overseas and resident Indian researchers and Academicians. 
• It is a collaborative initiative by S&T and Academic Organisations of India including Department of S&T, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). Objective: 
• To bring out the comprehensive roadmap to leverage the expertise and knowledge of global Indian researchers for solving emerging challenges. 
• To reflect in-depth on the collaboration and cooperation instruments with academia and scientists in India. 
• To create an ecosystem of Knowledge and Innovation in the country through global outreach.

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Asteroids can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt. 
2. Metal asteroids are commonly found in the solar system.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)

Explanation :- Asteroids

• They are sometimes called minor planets, are rocky, airless remnants left over from the early formation of our solar system about 4.6 billion years ago.
• Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the Sun between Mars and Jupiter within the main asteroid belt.  
• Most asteroids that are made up of rocks or ice. Metal asteroids are not commonly found in the solar system. 2 is incorrect.

Q6. e-AUSHADHI portal has been launched by

1. Ministry of Ayush
2. Ministry of Health & Family Welfare
3. Department of Pharmaceuticals
4. None of the above

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

Ministry of AYUSH has launched the e-AUSHADHI portal, for online licensing of Ayurveda, Siddha, Unani and Homoeopathy drugs.

• The portal is intended for increased transparency, improved information management facility, improved data usability and increased accountability.

Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to Sexual Harassment (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) At the workplace act, 2013

1.It mandates the constitution of the internal complaint committee (ICC) in case of more than 100 workers

2.If the employer fails to constitute an ICC, or does not abide by any other provision, they must pay a fine of up to ₹50,000.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)

Explanation :-

Sexual Harassment (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) At the workplace act, 2013

• It widens the definition of ‘aggrieved woman’ to include all women, irrespective of age and employment status, and it covers clients, customers and domestic workers.
• It expands ‘workplace’ beyond traditional offices to include all kinds of organisations across sectors, even non-traditional workplaces (for example those that involve telecommuting) and places visited by employees for work.
• It mandates the constitution of the internal complaint committee (ICC) in case of more than 10 workers — and states the action to be taken if an ICC is not formed — and the filing of an audit report of the number of complaints and action taken at the end of the year.
• In case the number of workers is less than 10, it mandates the constitution of the Local complaints committee.
• It lists the duties of the employer, like organising regular workshops and awareness programmes to educate employees about the Act.
• If the employer fails to constitute an ICC, or does not abide by any other provision, they must pay a fine of up to ₹50,000.  

o          If the offender is a repeat offender, the fine gets doubled.  

The second offence can also lead to cancellation or non-renewal of his licence.

Q8. Consider the following statements with reference to Hydrogen Fuel 1. Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen

2. It is used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

About Hydrogen fuel

• Hydrogen is the lightest and first element on the periodic table. Since the weight of hydrogen is less than air, it rises in the atmosphere and is therefore rarely found in its pure form, H2.
• At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a nontoxic, nonmetallic, odorless, tasteless, colorless, and highly combustible diatomic gas.
• Hydrogen fuel is a zero-emission fuel burned with oxygen. It can be used in fuel cells or internal combustion engines. It is also used as a fuel for spacecraft propulsion.

Q9. Consider the following statements with reference to National Mission for Clean Ganga

1. NMCG has a two tier management structure and comprises the Governing Council and Executive Committee. 
2. NMCG is registered as a society.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

NMCG was registered as a society on 12th August 2011 under the Societies Registration Act 1860.

• It acted as an implementation arm of the National Ganga River Basin Authority(NGRBA) which was constituted under the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act (EPA),1986.
• NGRBA has since been dissolved with effect from the 7th October 2016, consequent to constitution of National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection and Management of River Ganga (referred as National Ganga Council).

Management of NMCG

NMCG has a two tier management structure and comprises the Governing Council and Executive Committee. 

Structure

The Act envisages five tier structure at national, state and district level to take measures for prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution in river Ganga and to ensure continuous adequate flow of water so as to rejuvenate the river Ganga as below;

1. National Ganga Council under the chairmanship of Prime Minister.
2. Empowered Task Force (ETF) on river Ganga under chairmanship of Hon’ble Union Minister of Jal Shakti (Department of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation). 
3. National Mission for Clean Ganga(NMCG). 
4. State Ganga Committees and 
5. District Ganga Committees in every specified district abutting river Ganga and its tributaries in the states. 

Q10. Consider the following statements with respect to the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)

1. It is the oldest trade union federations in India. 
2. In the aftermath of the second World War the AITUC played a significant role in the foundation of the World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU).

Which of the above statement/s is/are correct? a) 1 only

• 2 only
• Both 1 and 2
• Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

Formation of AITUC

• Convention in Bombay: It was in this background that the preparations began and a convention was held in Bombay which decided to hold All India Trade Union Congress in Bombay.
  • Founding conference (or the first session): Began on October 31, 1920, in Empire Theatre Bombay with Lala Lajpat Rai as the founding President.
  • Other leaders participated: Political leaders of various shades of opinions such as Moti Lal Nehru, Mohd. Ali Jinnah, Annie Basant, V J Patel, B.P. Wadia, J. Baptista, Lalubhai Samaldas, Jamnadas, Dwarka Das, B W Wadia R R Karandikar, Col. J.C. Wedgwood.
  • About AITUC: 
    • It is the oldest trade union federations in India. 
    • Until 1945 when unions became organised on party lines, it was the primary trade union organisation in India. 
    • Since then, it has been associated with the Communist Party of India. In the aftermath of the second World War the AITUC played a significant role in the foundation of the World Federation of Trade Unions (WFTU).

Q11. Mission Sagar, recently in news, is

1. In line with the India’s vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region

(SAGAR)

• An attempt by the government of India to provide assistance to Friendly Foreign Countries to overcome natural calamities and COVID-19 pandemic.
  • The development of the Blue Economy that can serve as a growth catalyst for India and help realizing the vision to become a $10 trillion economy by 2032. d) Both a and b

Solution : d)

Explanation :-

• As part of Mission Sagar-II, Indian Naval Ship Airavat entered Port Sudan recently. 
  • The Government of India is providing assistance to Friendly Foreign Countries to overcome natural calamities and COVID-19 pandemic.
  • Towards the same INS Airavat is carrying a consignment of 100 Tonnes of food aid for the people of Sudan.

About Mission Sagar-II:

• It follows the first Mission Sagar undertaken in May-June 2020.

o Under the first mission, India reached out to Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar and Comoros, and provided food aid and medicines. 

• As part of Mission Sagar-II, Indian Naval Ship Airavat will deliver food aid to Sudan, South Sudan, Djibouti and Eritrea. 
  • Mission Sagar-II, is in line with the vision of Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) and highlights the importance accorded by India to relations with her maritime neighbours and further strengthens the existing bond. 
  • The Indian Navy is progressing this mission inclose coordination with the Ministries of Defence and External Affairs, and other agencies of the Government of India.

Q12. Education Commission under Dr. D. S. Kothari is related with

1. National Education Policy, 1992
   1. National Education Policy, 1986
   1. National Education Policy, 1968
   1. None of these

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

Education Commission (1964-66) under Dr. D. S. Kothari

• The Commission had submitted its Report on 29 June 1966; its recommendations were accommodated in India’s first National Policy on Education in 1968.

Q13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) MPC was given the target of keeping inflation at between 2% and 6%. 
   1. It is according to the multiple indicator approach.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

The new monetary framework:

• An agreement between the RBI and central government in 2015: It explicitly made inflation targeting the objective of the MPC while using the repo rate as the instrument for it.  
  • Target given to MPC: The Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) MPC was given the target of keeping inflation at 4% +/- 2%. This meant that inflation should be between 2% and 6%. 
  • Contrasting target: It contrasted with the multiple indicator approach that predated this framework where the central bank focused on both growth and price stability. 2 is incorrect.

Q14. With reference to AARAMBH, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched for the first time in 2014.
2. This is the first ever of its kind common foundation course for civil service probationers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)

Explanation :-

The Prime Minister interacted with the Officer Trainees (OTs) of the Indian Civil Services at LBSNAA Mussoorie through a Video conference from Kevadia, Gujarat.

• This is a part of the integrated foundation course AARAMBH launched for the first time in 2019.
• This is the first ever of its kind common foundation course for civil service probationers.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q15. With reference to Sea-plane, consider the following statements:

1. Seaplanes have the ability to land and take-off from water thus offering access to areas that do not have landing strips or runways.
   1. The recently inaugurated Sea-plane Service at Kevadia are part of a series of Water Aerodromes being planned to bring the last mile connectivity.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
      1. Both 1 and 2
      1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

The Prime Minister inaugurated Water Aerodrome at Kevadia and the Sea-plane Service connecting Statue of Unity in Kevadia with Sabarmati Riverfront in Ahmedabad.

• He also inaugurated Water Aerodrome in Sabarmati Riverfront in Ahmedabad and the SeaPlane Service from Sabarmati Riverfront to Kevadia.
• These are part of a series of Water Aerodromes being planned to bring the last mile connectivity.
• Seaplanes have the ability to land and take-off from water thus offering access to areas that do not have landing strips or runways.
• Thus it can help in connecting the geographies/regions that have challenges owing to its topography and bring the remotest parts of India into the mainstream aviation network without the high cost of building airports and runways.
• These smaller fixed wing airplanes can land on water bodies like lakes, backwaters and dams, gravel and grass, thus offering easy access to numerous tourist spots as well.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q16. With reference to the biomass gasification based hydrogen generation technology, consider the following statements:

1. The Bengaluru based Indian Institute of Science and Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) have signed an MOU to develop biomass gasification based hydrogen generation technology for producing fuel cell-grade hydrogen at an affordable price.
   1. The technology is crucial for the fuel cell operated buses being conceived by Indian Oil towards ushering in the country’s hydrogen economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
      1. Both 1 and 2
      1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

The Bengaluru based Indian Institute of Science and Indian Oil Corporation (IOCL) have signed an MOU to develop biomass gasification based hydrogen generation technology for producing fuel cell-grade hydrogen at an affordable price.

• Both IISc and Indian Oil will demonstrate the technology in the Indian Oil R&D Centre in Faridabad.
• The technology is crucial for the fuel cell operated buses being conceived by Indian Oil towards ushering in the country’s hydrogen economy.
• Indian Oil Corporation had recently launched trials of 50 buses in Delhi using hydrogen-CNG as a fuel, based on Indian oil patented single step reforming technology. It is now working with IISc to use hydrogen production technology based on biomass gasification.
• IISc has worked on biomass gasification and developed an innovative process for the production of hydrogen rich syngas and a small scale prototype is demonstrated in the IISc campus.
• The use of this technology will not only provide a cleaner energy option for India but also be a step towards addressing the challenge of biomass waste.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q17. Chandi Padvo festival is primarily celebrated in:

1. Gujarat
   1. Tamil Nadu
      1. Andhra Pradesh
      1. Sikkim

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

The Chandi Padvo festival, which falls a day after Sharad Poornima, is widely celebrated by Surtis, or the people native to Surat across the country and abroad, by consuming Ghari (Sweet) and Bhusu (namkeen) sitting in the open to celebrate the full moon.

• On Chandi Padvo, tradition has it that people of Surat eat only sweetmeats that are white and hence doodh poha, kheer or ghari are made across households.
• Ghari, a dish made of maida filled with mava, pistachios, almonds and sugar, and fried in ghee and then dipped in ghee to give it a white coat, is native to Surat and is most popular on this day.
• Incidentally, the sweetmeat resembles the full moon.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q18. Bandhu, recently seen in news, is an initiative of:

1. Ministry of Education
   1. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
      1. Ministry of Finance
      1. Ministry of Home Affairs

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

Union Minister of State for Education launched a self-help website – Bandhu – for students of IIT Bombay.

• Bandhu has been designed in conjunction with the counsellors at IIT Bombay along with external experts.
• It addresses challenges ranging from adjustment to college life, academic stress, and mental health. Bandhu has curated reads, motivational alumni journeys, expert podcasts and tools for self-exploration.
• Project Bandhu was initiated by alumni of the Class of 1992, as a part of their silver jubilee reunion in 2017. They pledged to support IIT Bombay and help students enhance their emotional well-being. The self-help website is one of the first steps in this direction.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q19. Mansar Lake is situated in:

1. Jammu and Kashmir
   1. Sikkim
      1. Arunachal Pradesh
      1. Kerala

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

In a move to increase tourism, Jitendra Singh, Union Minister of Development of North Eastern Region, inaugurated the Mansar Lake Development Plan in Jammu and Kashmir.

• The project is eyed to attract almost 20 lakh tourists every year and create employment for

1.15 crore man-days with an income generation of ₹800 crore per year.

• Mansar Lake is situated 62 km from Jammu. It is a lake fringed by forest-covered hills, over a mile in length. Surinsar-Mansar Lakes are designated as Ramsar Convention in November 2005.
• Mansar is of immense importance from Pilgrimage as well Heritage point of view beyond being the most scenic attraction due to vast Mansar Lake and its flora and fauna.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q20. With reference to the Central Vista Redevelopment project, consider the following statements:

1. The Central Vista is a 3 km stretch in the heart of New Delhi that runs from the Rashtrapati Bhavan to India Gate.
   1. The new Parliament has to be ready by March 2022 the 75th year of India’s Independence. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
      1. 1 only
      1. 2 only
      1. Both 1 and 2
      1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

In a Supreme Court hearing (October 27), Senior Advocate Shyam Divan argued about the discrepancies in the process of the Central Vista Redevelopment project.

The Central Vista is a 3 km stretch in the heart of New Delhi that runs from the Rashtrapati Bhavan to India Gate. It is flanked by large green spaces and significant structures such as Parliament, the Secretariat buildings and the National Archives.

• The Central government is redeveloping the three-km-long Central Vista and Parliament. A common Central secretariat will be constructed for all ministries that are currently spread over many buildings across Delhi.
• The new Parliament has to be ready by March 2022 the 75th year of India’s Independence. The revamped Central Vista, complete with public amenities and parking, has to be ready by November 2021 and the new common Central secretariat by March 2024.
• The Parliament House and North and South Blocks will not be demolished, but their usage may change. The rest of the buildings that came up post-1947, including Shastri Bhavan and Krishi Bhavan, are likely to be demolished.
• The Parliament House and the North and South Blocks were built by the British between 1911 and 1931. Post-1947, the government of independent India added office buildings such as Shastri Bhavan, Krishi Bhavan and Nirman Bhavan. These buildings do not have the facilities and space required today.
• While the British-built buildings are not earthquake-proof the buildings that came up after 1947 are prone to fires. The new buildings are expected to have a lifespan of 150 to 200 years. They would be energy-efficient and modern workspaces. The revamp would represent a ‘New

India’.

Hence both statements are correct.

Q21. With reference to the Kochi Metropolitan Transport Authority (KMTA), consider the following statements:

1. It is an umbrella body to shape and preside over an integrated, seamless urban transport system in the city.
   1. Kochi is the largest and most populous metropolitan area in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
      1. Both 1 and 2
      1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

On November 1, the Kochi Metropolitan Transport Authority (KMTA) came into effect in Kochi, Kerala’s financial nerve-centre, as an umbrella body to shape and preside over an integrated, seamless urban transport system in the city.

• Kochi is the largest and most populous metropolitan area in Kerala. In 2017, when the first phase of the Metro rail was inaugurated in Kochi, the need for a transport authority that can streamline multiple modes of transport with a single command centre was felt.
• In fact, a precondition set by the Centre in 2013 for the approval of a rapid transit rail in Kochi was to integrate all public modes of transport and introduce a common ticketing system for the convenience of commuters under the National Urban Mobility Policy.
• In November, 2019, the Kerala Assembly passed the Kerala Metropolitan Transport Authority (KMTA) bill that cleared the way for metropolitan transport authorities to be formed in three cities in the state – Thiruvananthapuram, Kozhikode and Kochi.

The KMTA will be an independent body which will be responsible for operation, maintenance, development and supervision of public transport modes in urban areas in the city.

• The body will be chaired by the state’s transport minister with the transport secretary acting as vice-chairperson. It can have a maximum of 15 members.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q22. Who among the following was the fourth Guru of Sikhism?

1. Guru Ram Das
   1. Guru Angad
      1. Guru Har Gobind
      1. Guru Arjan Dev

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

The Prime Minister Narendra Modi has greeted the people on the occasion of the Parkash Purab of Sri Guru Ramdas Ji.

• Guru Ram Das (1534 – 1581) was the fourth of the ten Gurus of Sikhism.
• His birth name was Jetha. Guru Ram Das became the Guru of Sikhism in 1574 and served as the Sikh leader until his death in 1581.
• He appointed his own son as his successor, and unlike the first four Gurus who were not related through descent, the fifth through tenth Sikh Gurus were the direct descendants of Ram Das.            Amritsar: o       Guru Ram Das is credited with founding the holy city of Amritsar in the Sikh tradition.

o          He shifted his official base to lands identified by Guru Amar Das as Guru-ka-Chak. This newly founded town was eponymous Ramdaspur, later to evolve and get renamed as Amritsar.

          Masand system: o      While Guru Amar Das introduced the manji system of religious organization, Ram Das extended it with adding the masand institution.

o The masand were Sikh community leaders who lived far from the Guru, but acted to lead the distant congregations, their mutual interactions and collect revenue for Sikh activities and temple building.

• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q23. Who among the following was the last Maharaja of the Sikh Empire?

1. Maharaja Duleep Singh
   1. Maharaja Ranjit Singh
   1. Maharaja Kharak Singh
   1. Maharaja Sher Singh

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

Maharani Jindan Kaur, the last wife of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, is in news for the auction of some of her jewellery at Bonhams Islamic and Indian Art sale in London earlier this week.

• Rani Jindan (1817-1863) was the youngest wife of Maharaja Ranjit Singh, founder of the Sikh empire, whose boundaries stretched from Kabul to Kashmir and the borders of Delhi.

She was also the mother of Maharaja Duleep Singh, the last ruler of the empire, who was raised by the British.

• Duleep Singh was five years old when he was placed on the throne in 1843 after the death of two heirs to Maharaja Ranjit Singh.
• Since he was just a child, Maharani Jindan was made the regent.
• Not a rubber stamp, she took an active interest in running the kingdom, introducing changes in the revenue system.
• As the only surviving widow of Ranjit Singh, Jindan Kaur led a spirited resistance to the encroachment of the British into the Punjab, but was eventually forced to surrender.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q24. With reference to Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (CTE), consider the following statements:

1. It is a disease that causes severe damage to the brain because of repeated head injuries and is linked to memory loss, depression and dementia.
   1. Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)

Explanation :-

It was reported that England World Cup winner Bobby Charlton, regarded England’s greatest, had developed dementia leading to questions that can striking headers in football lead to dementia?

• Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy (CTE) is a disease that causes severe damage to the brain because of repeated head injuries and is linked to memory loss, depression and dementia.
• Former boxers are most commonly diagnosed with it, however, there have been instances of CTE in many other contact sports like pro wrestling, mixed martial arts, ice hockey, rugby, baseball, Australian rules football and, of course, football.
• Dementia is a general term for loss of memory, language, problem-solving and other thinking abilities that are severe enough to interfere with daily life. Alzheimer’s is the most common cause of dementia.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q25. With reference to iGOT e-learning platform, consider the following statements:

1. It provides self-contained training material for COVID-19 warriors comprising 56 modules, 196 videos and 133 training documents.
   1. It is launched by Ministry of Education.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
   1. 2 only
   1. Both 1 and 2
   1. Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)

Explanation :-

Ministry of Health has said that uniquely designed Integrated Government Online training ’iGOT platform provides self-contained training material for COVID-19 warriors comprising 56 modules, 196 videos and 133 training documents.

• Early this year, the Department of Personnel and Training has announced the launch of a learning platform (https://igot.gov.in) to combat COVID 19 for all front-line workers to equip them with the training and updates in coping with Pandemic.
• The target group is Doctors, Nurses, Central & State Govt. Officers, Civil Defence Officials, various Police Organisations, National Cadet Corps (NCC), Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), National Service Scheme (NSS), Indian Red Cross Society (IRCS), Bharat Scouts & Guides (BSG) and other volunteers.
• The platform delivers curated, role-specific content, to each learner at his place of work or home.
• To begin with nine courses on iGOT have been launched on topics like Basics of COVID, ICU Care and Ventilation Management, Clinical Management, Infection Prevention through PPE, Quarantine and Isolation, Laboratory Sample Collection and Testing etc. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.