20 MARCH CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:

1. It aims to put seven castes under one nomenclature of “Devendrakula Vellalars” with some exceptions for some of the castes in certain districts of Tamil Nadu.

2. The castes include Devendrakulathan, Kadaiyan, Kalladi, Kudumban, Pallan, Pannadi and Vathiriyan.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:  C

Explanation:

The Lok Sabha passed The Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order (Amendment) Bill, 2021 that seeks to put seven castes under one nomenclature of “Devendrakula Vellalars” with some exceptions for some of the castes in certain districts of Tamil Nadu.

• The castes include Devendrakulathan, Kadaiyan, Kalladi, Kudumban, Pallan, Pannadi and Vathiriyan.
• The State government had earlier accepted a recommendation of a committee to reclassify the seven sub sects under the generic name ‘Devendrakula Velalar’ and forwarded it to the Centre.
• The change in nomenclature was a long pending demand of the community and did not involve either the deletion or addition of any community in its ambit.
• The reason why a whole new addition was not made to the Scheduled Castes list was to ensure that old caste certificates issued to these communities under the old name not be rejected.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q2. Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, often mentioned in news, was released by:

		A.	World Economic Forum
		B.	World Bank
		C.	UNESCO
		D.	None of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

Union Minister for Agriculture questioned in the Rajya Sabha the methodology and data accuracy of the Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, which has placed India at 94th among 107 countries in 2020.

• The Minister said the government had written to the NGO, Welthungerhilfe, which compiles the report, expressing concerns about their methodology, data accuracy and sample size.
• India’s ranking had improved from 102 in 2019 to 94 in 2020. But still, India was ranked below countries such as Nepal, Bangladesh and Myanmar.

NFHS-4 vs CNNS of 2017-18

• According to the National Family Health Survey (NFHS)-4, the percentage of wasted, stunted and malnourished children in 2015-16 stood at 21, 38.4 and 35.7, respectively.
• Compared to NFHS-4 data, the Comprehensive National Nutrition Survey (CNNS) of 2017-18 showed an improvement of 4%, 3.7% and 2.3% in wasted, stunted and malnourished children respectively.
• The first-ever CNNS was commissioned by the government in 2016 and was conducted from 2016-18, led by the Union Health Ministry, in collaboration with the UNICEF. The findings were published in 2019.
• CNNS includes only nutrition data, whereas NFHS encompasses overall health indicators.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q3. With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2021, consider the following statements:

1. The amendment proposes to allow captive miners of both coal and other minerals to sell up to 50 per cent of their production after meeting the requirements of the end-use plant and on paying additional royalty to the state government.

2. The amendment proposes to fix additional royalty payments to states for the extension of mining leases for central public sector enterprises.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Lok Sabha passed the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2021 to streamline the renewal of the auction process for minerals and coal mining rights.

• The amendment proposes to allow captive miners of both coal and other minerals to sell up to 50 per cent of their production after meeting the requirements of the end-use plant and on paying additional royalty to the state government.
• Operators are currently only allowed to use coal and minerals extracted from captive mines for their own industrial use. This increased flexibility would allow miners to maximise output from captive mines as they would be able to sell output in excess of their own requirements.
• The amendment also proposes to fix additional royalty payments to states for the extension of mining leases for central public sector enterprises.
• The Bill also proposes to empower the central government to conduct auctions or re-auction processes for the grant of a mining lease if a state government fails to complete the auction process in a specified period, decided after consultations between the Centre and state.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q4. Ranthambore tiger sanctuary, recently seen in news, is located in:

		A.	Uttar Pradesh
		B.	Madhya Pradesh
		C.	Assam
		D.	Rajasthan

Answer: D

Explanation:

Six tigers — four adults and two sub-adults — have been unaccounted for since March 2020 in the Ranthambore tiger sanctuary, Rajasthan. However, State forest officials are not willing to label them “missing” and denied reports that they may have been poached.

• The National Tiger Conservation Authority, a wing of the Union Environment Ministry, has constituted a committee to ascertain the disappearance of the tigers.
• The Ranthambore Reserve is the only source of tigers in the territory with about 53 tigers constituting over 90% of the population in this block, as per the latest census made public last year.
• India has 2,967 tigers, a third more than in 2014, according to results of a census made public on July 29 last year. Ranthambore, according to this exercise, had 55 tigers.
• Madhya Pradesh has the highest number of tigers at 526, closely followed by Karnataka (524) and Uttarakhand (442).
• Chhattisgarh and Mizoram saw a decline in tiger population and all other States saw an increase.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q5. With reference to the Vehicle Scrapping Policy, consider the following statements:

1. The new policy provides for fitness tests after the completion of 20 years in the case of privately owned vehicles and 15 years in the case of commercial vehicles.

2. Any vehicle that fails the fitness test or does not manage renewal of its registration certificate may be declared as an End of Life Vehicle.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

India will implement a GPS-based toll collection system and do away with all toll booths within a year, Union Minister for Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari informed the Lok Sabha.

GPS-based toll collection system:

• It means that toll collection will happen via GPS. The money will be collected based on GPS imaging of vehicles.
• He said 93% of the vehicles were paying toll using FASTag — a system that facilitates electronic payment of fee at toll plazas seamlessly — but the remaining 7% had still not adopted it despite paying double the toll.

Vehicle Scrapping Policy

• He also shared details of the vehicle scrapping policy, first announced in the Union Budget for 2021-22, according to which the automobile industry in India will see a jump in turnover to ₹10 lakh crore from ₹4.5 lakh crore.
• The new policy provides for fitness tests after the completion of 20 years in the case of privately owned vehicles and 15 years in the case of commercial vehicles.
• Any vehicle that fails the fitness test or does not manage renewal of its registration certificate may be declared as an End of Life Vehicle.
• The policy will kick in for government vehicles from April 1, 2022. Mandatory fitness testing for heavy commercial vehicles will start from April 1, 2023, and for all other categories of vehicles, including personal vehicles, it will start in phases from June 1, 2024 .
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q6. Which articlestates that the executive power of every State must ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament?

1. Article 365
2. Article 131
3. Article 256
4. Article 254

Answer: C

Article 256 of the Constitution states that the executive power of every State must ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament.

○ Kerala has said in its suit that, under CAA it would be compelled to comply with its provisions because of Article 256.

○ Kerala considers CAA to be arbitrary, unreasonable, irrational and violative of fundamental rights.

○ If it does not follow the same, the repercussions could be seen in the form of Article 365.

● Article 365: In case of failure to comply with, or to give effect to, directions given by the Union, the President is empowered to make a decision thinking that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution. Hence, the President‟s rule could be enacted.

● The option available with the states is to take Centre to the Supreme Court over the validity of these laws.

● Article 131 of the Constitution provides exclusive jurisdiction to the Supreme Court to adjudicate matters between the states and the Centre.

● Article 254 (2) of the Constitution empowers state governments to pass legislations which negate the Central acts in the matters enumerated under the Concurrent List.

● A state legislation passed under Article 254 (2) requires the assent of the President of India.

Q7. Which of the following schemes come under Ministry of Women and Child Development?

1. Eat Right India Movement
2. POSHAN Abhiyaan
3. Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. All the above
4. None

Answer: B

Eat Right India Movement: An outreach activity organised by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) for citizens to nudge them towards eating right.

● POSHAN Abhiyaan: Launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2018, it targets to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls).

● Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana: A centrally sponsored scheme executed by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, is a maternity benefit programme being implemented in all districts of the country with effect from 1st January, 2017.

Q8. With reference to the Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail, consider the following statements:

1. VVPAT is an independent verification printer machine and is attached to electronic voting machines.

2. After being visible to the voter from a glass case in the VVPAT for seven seconds, the ballot slip will be cut and dropped into the drop box in the VVPAT machine and a beep will be heard.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Voter Verified Paper Audit Trail

● VVPAT is an independent verification printer machine and is attached to electronic voting machines.

● It allows voters to verify if their vote has gone to the intended candidate.

● When a voter presses a button in the EVM, a paper slip is printed through the VVPAT. The slip contains the poll symbol and name of the candidate. It allows the voter to verify his/her choice.

● After being visible to the voter from a glass case in the VVPAT for seven seconds, the ballot slip will be cut and dropped into the drop box in the VVPAT machine and a beep will be heard.

● VVPAT machines can be accessed by polling officers only.

Q9. National Adaptation Fund is operated under

1. Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC)
2. UNFCCC
3. NITI Aayog
4. Both a and b

Answer: A

Explanation:

National Adaptation Fund:

○ The fund was established in 2014 with a corpus of Rs. 100 crore with the aim of bridging the gap between the need and the available funds.

○ The fund is operated under Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).

Q10. With reference to Government Securities (G-Secs), consider the following statements:

1. Treasury bills (T-Bills) are short-term instruments which mature in 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days

2. Dated securities are long-term instruments, which mature anywhere between 5 years and 40 years

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

		A.	1 only
		B.	2 only
		C.	Both 1 and 2
		D.	Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Government Securities (G-Secs)

● These are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money.

● The two key categories are:

○ Treasury bills (T-Bills) – short-term instruments which mature in 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and

○ Dated securities – long-term instruments, which mature anywhere between 5 years and 40 years

● T-Bills are issued only by the central government, and the interest on them is determined by market forces.

● Like bank fixed deposits, g-secs are not tax-free.

● They are generally considered the safest form of investment because they are backed by the government. So, the risk of default is almost nil.

● However, they are not completely risk-free, since they are subject to fluctuations in interest rates.

● Bank fixed deposits, on the other hand, are guaranteed only to the extent of Rs 5 lakh by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).