29 APRIL CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to the earthquake, consider the following statements:

1. The National Centre for Seismology (NCS) is an office of India’s Ministry of Environment.
2. The Seismology Division and Earthquake Risk Evaluation Centre of the India Meteorological Department merged with NCS in August 2014 to more effectively monitor and research seismological activity.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
After the earthquake of 6.4 magnitude on the Richter scale, Assam’s Sonitpur was again struck by six tremors.
• An earthquake of magnitude 2.7 on the Richter scale struck Assam’s Sonitpur . The epicentre of the quake was 38 kilometres West-Northwest of Tezpur at a depth of 11 kilometres.
• The preliminary analysis shows that the events are located near to Kopili Fault closer to Himalayan Frontal Thrust (HFT).
• According to NCS, the area is seismically very active falling in the highest Seismic Hazard zone V associated with collisional tectonics where Indian plate subducts beneath the Eurasian Plate.
• HFT, also known as the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT), is a geological fault along the boundary of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates. The Kopili Fault is a 300-km northwest-southeast trending fault from the Bhutan Himalaya to the Burmese arc.
• The historical and instrumentally recorded earthquake data (NCS catalogue) reveals that the region is affected by moderate to large earthquakes and the most prominent events among those are the July 29, 1960, Assam earthquake of magnitude 6.0.
• The National Centre for Seismology (NCS) is an office of India’s Ministry of Earth Sciences. The office monitors earthquakes and conducts seismological research.
• The Seismology Division and Earthquake Risk Evaluation Centre of the India Meteorological Department merged with NCS in August 2014 to more effectively monitor and research seismological activity.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q2. With reference to the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, consider the following statements:

1. It provides that the term “government” referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will imply the elected government in Delhi.
2. The Act requires the LG to reserve certain Bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution: b)

Explanation:
The Ministry of Home Affairs issued a gazette notification stating that the provisions of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act, 2021, would be deemed to have come into effect from April 27.
• The Bill amends the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991. The Act provides a framework for the functioning of the Legislative Assembly and the government of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
• The Bill amends certain powers and responsibilities of the Legislative Assembly and the Lieutenant Governor.
• Restriction on laws passed by the Assembly: The Bill provides that the term “government” referred to in any law made by the Legislative Assembly will imply Lieutenant Governor (LG).
• Rules of Procedure of the Assembly: The Act allows the Legislative Assembly to make Rules to regulate the procedure and conduct of business in the Assembly. The Bill provides that such Rules must be consistent with the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in the Lok Sabha.
• Inquiry by the Assembly into administrative decisions: The Bill prohibits the Legislative Assembly from making any rule to enable itself or its Committees to:
o consider the matters of day-to-day administration of the NCT of Delhi and
o conduct any inquiry in relation to administrative decisions.
• Assent to Bills:
o The Act requires the LG to reserve certain Bills passed by the Legislative Assembly for the consideration of the President.
o The Bill requires the LG to also reserve those Bills for the President which incidentally cover any of the matters outside the purview of the powers of the Legislative Assembly.
• LG’s opinion for executive actions:
o The Act specifies that all executive action by the government, whether taken on the advice of the Ministers or otherwise, must be taken in the name of the LG.
o The Bill adds that on certain matters, as specified by the LG, his opinion must be obtained before taking any executive action on the decisions of the Minister/ Council of Ministers.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to imposition of President’s rule:

1. The proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review.
2. It can only be imposed on states and not Union Territories.
3. It can be proclaimed on the advice of the Council of Ministers tendered under Article 74.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 1 and 3 only
   c) 1, 2 and 3
   d) 2 and 3 only

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Recently the Union Cabinet approved a proposal by the Home Ministry to dissolve the Puducherry Assembly and impose President’s rule in the Union Territory. The notification said the President had received a report from the administrator of the UT on February 22 and “after considering the report and other information”, the President was “satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the administration of the Union Territory of Puducherry cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 (20 of 1963).” Hence statement 2 is not correct.
• Since the formation of the Republic, President’s Rule under Article 356 has been imposed in states in over 100 occasions. Proclamation of President’s rule under Article 356 is on the advice of the Council of Ministers tendered under Article 74. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• According to the Article 356, “(1) If the President, on receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution”.
• In Bommai case (1994), the following propositions have been laid down by the Supreme Court on imposition of President’s Rule in a state under Article 356:
o The presidential proclamation imposing President’s Rule is subject to judicial review. Hence statement 1 is correct.
o The satisfaction of the President must be based on relevant material. The action of the president can be struck down by the court if it is based on ‘irrelevant’ or ‘extraneous’ grounds or if it was found to be malafide or perverse.

Q4. What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

1. Bangkok
2. Hanoi
3. Jakarta
4. Singapore
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   a) 4-2-1-3
   b) 3-2-4-1
   c) 3-4-1-2
   d) 4-3-2-1

Solution: c)

Explanation:
Correct option is ‘c’.

Q5. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI

Solution: b)

Explanation:
Correct option is ‘b’.
FDI is an investment that a parent company makes in a foreign country. On the contrary, FII is an investment made by an investor in the markets of a foreign nation.

Q6. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 25(2)(a) empowers the state to regulate “economic, financial, political
   or other secular activities which may be associated with religious practice”.
2. Article 25(2)(b) enables the state to enact law to prohibit the exclusion of
   ‘classes and sections’ of Hindu society to enter into Hindu temples of a public
   character and also make law for social welfare and reform.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct
 Article 25(1) guarantees the right to freedom of conscience, and the freedom
to profess, practice and propagate religion. This right is made subject to a
prefatory sub-clause, in the interests of “public order, morality, and health.”
 Article 25(1) is similar to the religious freedom clauses in other liberal
commonwealth jurisdictions, and standing by itself, would present no
unique interpretive difficulties.
 However, Article 25(2)(a) allows the State to make laws “regulating or
restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which
may be associated with religious practice.”
 Article 25(2)(b) further allows the State to make laws “providing for social
welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a
public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.”

Q7. Consider the following statements:

1. As per Article 239AA – Public Order, Police and Land in NCT of Delhi fall
   within the domain and control of the Delhi Government.
2. The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 provided special status for
   Delhi.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution : b)
   Explanation :-
   Statement 2 is correct.
   Special provisions for New Delhi
    The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 provided special status for
   Delhi by incorporating Article 239 AA and 239 AB by providing for
   legislative assembly and and Council of Ministers.
    Delhi was named as the National Capital Region (NCT) of Delhi.
    As per Article 239AA – Public Order, Police and Land in NCT of Delhi fall
   within the domain and control of Central Government which shall have the
   power to make laws on these matters.
    For remaining matters of State List or Concurrent List, in so far as any
   such matter is applicable to UTs, the Legislative Assembly shall have power
   to make laws for NCT of Delhi.
    Further, for Offences against laws, Jurisdiction and powers of Courts
   (except SC) and Fees (except court fees) so far as they relate to Public
   Order, Police and Land in NCT of Delhi; Central Government would have
   power to make laws.
    The Council of Ministers (i.e. CM and his Ministers) are elected to aid
   and advise the LG in the exercise of his functions in relation to matters
   with respect to which the Legislative assembly has power to make law.
    Therefore, in respect of Public Order, Police and Land – LG would not need
   aid and advise from the Council of Ministers.
    For other matters enumerated in the State List, this arrangement would
   work.

Q8. Consider the following statements about Vehicle Scrappage Policy:

1. This will boost sales of heavy and medium commercial vehicles.
2. It will help improve fuel efficiency and reduce pollution.
   Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct.
Vehicle Scrappage Policy: Key Highlights
 Personal vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than 15
years will have to undergo a fitness test at the government registered
‘Automated Fitness Centres’.
 Private vehicles older than 20 years and commercial vehicles older than
15 years that fail to pass the fitness test will be de-registered.
 Such vehicles that fail the fitness test or vehicles whose owners fail to renew
the registration certificate would be declared “end-of-life vehicles”.
 The said vehicles shall be scrapped at the authorized scrapping centres.
Benefits
 This will boost sales of heavy and medium commercial vehicles.
 It will help improve fuel efficiency and reduce pollution.
 As older vehicles pollute the environment 10 to 12 times more, and
estimated that 17 lakh medium and heavy commercial vehicles are more
than 15 years old.

Q9. Python-5 is in the news. It is a
a) Rocket
b) Surface-to-air missile
c) Air-to-air missile
d) Nuclear submarine
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
India’s indigenous Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas, has added the 5th
generation Python-5 Air-to-Air Missile (AAM) to its air-to-air weapons capability.
 Trials were also aimed to validate the enhanced capability of the already
integrated Derby Beyond Visual Range (BVR) AAM on Tejas.
 Derby missile achieved direct hit on a high-speed maneuvering aerial target.
The Python missiles also achieved 100% hits, thereby validating their complete
capability.

Q10. With reference to the NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation),
consider the following statements:

1. It is an autonomous regional satellite navigation system established and
   maintained by ISRO.
2. It covers India and a region extending up to 3000 km beyond Indian mainland.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 only
   b) 2 only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Solution: a)
   Explanation:
   National Telecommunications Institute for Policy Research, Innovation and
   Training (NTIPRIT), the apex training institute of Department of
   Telecommunications, Government of India conducted a webinar on April 28, 2021
   on the topic “NavlC — Opportunities for the Telecom Industry” in collaboration with
   ISRO and Telecom Industry.
    NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) is an autonomous regional satellite
   navigation system established and maintained by ISRO.
    It covers India and a region extending up to 1 ,500 km beyond Indian mainland
   (primary coverage area).
    It provides position accuracy better than 20 m (20) and timing accuracy better than
   50 ns (20).
    The actual measurements demonstrate accuracy better than 5 m and 20 ns
   respectively.
    NavIC based applications are being used in various civilian sectors, including,
   transport, map applications, and timekeeping. Some examples for NavlC enabled
   mobile phones include the Redmi Note 9 series from Xiaomi, the Realme 6 series,
   the OnePlus Nord, etc.
    NavlC is an indigenous positioning system that is under Indian control. There is
   no risk of the service being withdrawn or denied in a given situation.
   Hence only statement 1 is correct.