
10 APRIL CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)
Q1. Consider the following statements:
- State governments have no powers to grant “refugee” status to any foreigner”.
- India is a signatory to the United Nations Refugee Convention of 1951 and its 1967 Protocol.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 2 is incorrect
State governments have no powers to grant “refugee” status to any foreigner” as India is not a signatory to the United Nations Refugee Convention of 1951 and its 1967 Protocol.
Q2. Consider the following statements about he Overseas Citizens of India (OCI card):
- The OCI card provides a visa free travel to India.
- OCI cardholders do not get the right to vote, cannot hold government service and buy agricultural land. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct.
The Overseas Citizens of India (OCI card)
- The MHA defines an OCI as a person who was a citizen of India on or after January 26, 1950; or was eligible to become a citizen of India on that date; or who is a child or grandchild of such a person, among other eligibility criteria.
- According to Section 7A of the OCI card rules, an applicant is not eligible for the OCI card if he, his parents or grandparents have ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.
Benefits
- The OCI card gives them a visa free travel to India.
- The OCI card, among other benefits, allows multiple entry, multipurpose life long visa to an Indian-origin foreign national to visit India.
- Under the provisions of the OCI card, which gives the cardholder lifelong visa to India, those below 20 years and above 50 years need to renew their OCI card every time they have their passport renewed.
Limitations:
- OCI cardholders do not get the right to vote, cannot hold government service and buy agricultural land.
Q3. VAJRA PRAHAR 2021 is a bilateral military exercise between:
- India and USA
- India and Japan
- India and Bangladesh
- India and Nepal
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
- It is a bilateral exercise between the special forces of India and the US.
- The joint exercise by the Special Forces of both the countries is conducted alternatively between India and the United States to share the best practices and experiences in areas such as joint mission planning and operational tactics as also to improve interoperability between the Special Forces of both nations.
- Bilateral military exercises and defence exchanges are an important facet of deepening bilateral defence cooperation between friendly countries.
Q4. Dharma Guardian is a bilateral military between
- India and Maldives
- India and Bangladesh
- India and USA
- India and Japan
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Dharma Guardian is an Indo-Japan Joint Military Exercise that started off in 2018. The exercise takes place between the armies of both countries.
Q5. Consider the following statements:
- Under the Companies Act, “small shareholders” are defined as those with shares of a nominal value of not more than Rs 20,000 or any other prescribed sum.
- Section 151 of the Companies Act 2013 recommends that listed companies have one director elected by minority shareholders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Only statement 1 is correct.
- Under the Companies Act, “small shareholders” are defined as those with shares of a nominal value of not more than Rs 20,000 or any other prescribed sum.
- Section 151 of the Companies Act 2013 recommends that listed companies have one director elected by small shareholders, not minority shareholders.
Q6. Consider the following statements:
- Part IX and Part IX-A to the Constitution mandates the Union Finance Commission to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities.
- The Alma-Ata declaration of the World Health Organization (1978) outlined an integrated, local government-centric approach with simultaneous focus on access to water, sanitation, shelter and the like.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct
- The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments includes the third tier of local governments.
- Part IX and Part IX-A to the Constitution mandates the Union Finance Commission to supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities on the basis of the recommendations of the State
Finance Commission (another institution created by the Amendments).
- The Alma-Ata declaration of the World Health Organization (1978) outlined an integrated, local government-centric approach with simultaneous focus on access to water, sanitation, shelter and the like.
Q7. Global Gender Gap Report is published by:
- World Bank
- World Economic Forum
- IMF
- WTO
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2020 report covers 153 countries. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.
Q8. Consider the following statements:
- The Finance Commission is a statutory body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism.
- It is set up under Article 280 of the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Statement 1 is incorrect.
About the Finance Commission
- The Finance Commission is a Constitutional body that is at the centre of fiscal federalism.
- Set up under Article 280 of the Constitution, its core responsibility is to evaluate the state of finances of the Union and State Governments, recommend the sharing of taxes between them, lay down the principles determining the distribution of these taxes among States.
- The Finance Commission has to be reconstituted every five years. The Constitution doesn’t talk about whether it should be continuous or not continuous.
- It is a quasi judicial body.
Q9. Consider the following statements:
- A Public Provident Fund or PPF is a long-term tax-saving instrument that gives a variable rate of interest annually.
- Sukanya Samriddhi Account Scheme can only be opened by the natural or legal guardian of a girl child aged below 10 years.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :- Statement 1 is incorrect
Public Provident Fund (PPF)
- A Public Provident Fund or PPF is a long-term tax-saving instrument that gives a fixed rate of interest annually on the amount that you invested during the year.
- It has a lock-in period of 15 years.
- In a PPF account, the interest you earn is tax-free and the amount that is deposited during the financial year can be claimed under Section 80C.
- Following the finance minister’s announcement earlier in the day, the interest rate on PPF rolls back to 7.1 per cent which gets compounded annually.
National Savings Certificate (NSC)
- A National Savings Certificate or NSC has a tenure of five years and comes with a fixed rate of interest.
- The interest rate available on NSC is 6.8 per cent which is compounded annually but payable at maturity.
Sukanya Samriddhi Account Scheme
- Sukanya Samriddhi Account Scheme also known as Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a savings scheme launched back in 2015 as part of the “Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao” initiative by the government.
- It can only be opened by the natural or legal guardian of a girl child aged below 10 years.
- The account matures on completion of 21 years from the date of opening.
- In case, where the marriage of the account holder takes place before completion of a period of 21 years, the operation of the account shall not be permitted beyond the date of her marriage.
- A minimum of Rs 1,000 and a maximum of Rs 1.5 lakh can be invested in this scheme in a financial year.
- Presently, it provides an interest of 7.6 per cent compounded annually.
Kisan Vikas Patra
- Kisan Vikas Patra is a savings scheme available at the India Post Office in the form of certificates.
- It is a fixed rate small savings scheme that doubles your investment after a predetermined period of time (presently 124 months at an interest of 6.9 per cent).
Senior Citizen Savings Scheme
- Senior Citizen Savings Scheme offers a regular income with the highest safety and tax-saving benefits.
- It is available for those over 60 years of age. It provides tax deduction of up to Rs 1.5 lakh under Section 80C.
- At present, it offers 7.4 per cent which is compounded quarterly and paid.
Q10. Consider the following statements:
- The Election Commission of India has a judicial power to penalise the violators of the Model Code of Conduct.
- Expenditure incurred on electioneering by the star campaigner is not added to a candidate’s poll expenditure.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 1 is incorrect
- The Model Code of Conduct consists of a set of guidelines expected to be abiding by the political parties, their campaigners and the candidates.
- Objective: The Election Commission brings the Model Code of Conduct into effect to ensure free and fair elections.
- No judicial enforcement:Though the ECI does not have a judicial ability to penalise the violators of the Model Code of Conduct, it generally issues show-cause notice to the violators and in some cases, bars them from the poll campaign.
Star campaigner
A star campaigner is a celebrity vote seeker in an election for a party. This person can be a politician or even a film star. There is no law governing who can or cannot be made a star campaigner.
- They are nominated by the concerned political parties specifying their constituencies and duration of the status.
- A ‘recognised’ party declared as such by the Election Commission — can nominate a maximum of 40 star campaigners.
- An unrecognised political party can nominate a maximum of 20 star campaigners.
- Expenditure incurred on electioneering by the star campaigner is not added to a candidate’s poll expenditure giving him/her more leeway.
o According to the Representation of People’s Act, these expenses will be borne by the political parties.
- For an individual candidate to get a relief from campaign expenditure, the star campaigner has to limit oneself to general campaigning for the party.
Q11. Consider the following statements:
- The power of judicial review is an integral part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
- The Places of Worship Act does not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute and to “any suit, appeal or proceeding relating to it.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct.
- Under Article 32 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has the power to issue writs appropriate for enforcement of all the Fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution.
- The power of judicial review is an integral part of the basic structure of the Constitution, no Act of Parliament can exclude or curtail the powers of the Constitutional Courts with regard to the enforcement of fundamental rights.
Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991
- It mandates that the nature of all places of worship, except the one in Ayodhya that was then under litigation, shall be maintained as it was on August 15, 1947, and that no encroachment of any such place prior to the date can be challenged in courts.
- Aims: It seeks to “prohibit conversion of any place of worship and to provide for the maintenance of the religious character of any place of
worship as it existed on the 15th day of August, 1947, and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”.
- Section 3 of the Act, bans the conversion of a place of worship or even a section of it “into a place of worship of a different religious denomination or of a different segment of the same religious denomination”.
- Section 6 mandates a three-year “imprisonment and a fine for contravening the provisions of Section 3”.
However, the Places of Worship Act does not apply to the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute and to “any suit, appeal or proceeding relating to it”.
Q12. Consider the following statements about Chief of Defence Staff (CDS):
- The CDS acts as the principal military adviser to the defence minister on tri-Services issues.
- The CDS enjoys command authority over the Army, Navy and Air Force.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :- Statement 2 is incorrect
Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
- The Union Cabinet chaired by the Prime Minister had approved to create the post of Chief of Defence Staff in the rank of a four-star General with salary and benefits equivalent to a Service Chief.
- The Centre notified the retirement age for the CDS as 65 years, which will be three years more than the retirement age of the three service chiefs.
Role of Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)
Fundamentally, the CDS will perform two roles, as the single point military advisor to the Defence Minister andas head of the Department of Military Affairs (DoMA).
- First role: The CDS will act as the principal military adviser to the defence minister on tri-Services issues.
- The three Chiefs will continue to render advice to the defence minister on matters pertaining exclusively to their service.
- The CDS is also vested with the authority to provide directives to the three chiefs.
- He has no military command over the other services and can only advise the government on matters that concern all three services.
- The second role: Additionally, the CDS will lead the Department of Military Affairs (DoMA) dealing with the three services.
- CDS will enjoy the rank of Secretary within the DoD and his powers will be confined to only the revenue budget.
- CDS is vested with the authority in prioritising inter-service procurement decisions as Permanent Chairman-Chiefs of Staff Committee.
- The CDS as the PC-COSC would administer all tri-Services organisations including the Strategic Forces Command that function under the Nuclear Command Authority.
- While the CDS does not enjoy any command authority, in its capacity as DoMA, it will wield control over issues governing promotions, travel, appointments to key posts, and overseas assignments.
Q13. Consider the following statements:
- Under the 14th Finance Commission, grants for local bodies included only the village Panchayat, excluding the block and district panchayats.
- The 15th Finance Commision has included all levels of rural panchayats and also the panchayats in scheduled areas, besides cantonment boards.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct
- The Finance Commission has granted Rs 4,36,361 crore from the central divisive tax pool to local governments, both rural and urban, for 2021-26.
- Local governments like the village panchayat and urban municipality are the third-tier in the Indian governance system, the first being the central government and the second the state.
- The RLB grants are meant for all the tiers in the panchayat – village, block and district as well as for 5th and 6th Schedule areas in the States.
- The rural bodies implement around 70 per cent of India’s rural development programmes with an annual budget over Rs 2 lakh crore.
- Of the total grant, Rs 236,805 crore is for rural bodies for local governments (Panchayat institutions) while urban bodies (municipal corporations, municipalities, etc) get Rs 121,055 crore.
- An additional Rs 70,051 crore is earmarked as health grants for such local governments.
- Under the 14th FC, grants for local bodies included only the village Panchayat, excluding the block and district panchayats.
- The 15th FC has included all levels of rural panchayats and also the panchayats in scheduled areas as mentioned above, besides cantonment boards.
Q14. Consider the following statements:
- Human genome is made up of 24 chromosome pairs.
- A spike protein of SARS-CoV-2 enables the virus to enter and infect human cells.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :- Statement 1 is incorrect
Human genome is made up of 23 chromosome pairs with a total of about 3 billion DNA base pairs.
Like cellular life, coronaviruses themselves are surrounded by a fatty membrane known as an envelope. In order to gain entry to the inside of the cell, enveloped viruses use proteins (or glycoproteins as they are frequently covered in slippery sugar molecules) to fuse their own membrane to that of cells’ and take over the cell.
The spike protein of coronaviruses is one such viral glycoprotein. Ebola viruses have one, the influenza virus has two, and herpes simplex virus has five.
Q15. Consider the following statements:
- The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq.
- OPEC membership is open to only middle east countries.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :- Statement 2 is incorrect
OPEC
It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
- Founder Members: The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
- Currently, the Organization has a total of 14 Member Countries.
- OPEC’s objective is o to coordinate and unify petroleum policies among Member Countries, in order to secure fair and stable prices for petroleum producers;
- an efficient, economic and regular supply of petroleum to consuming nations; and
- a fair return on capital to those investing in the industry.
- OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization.
Q16. The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is headquartered in
- Vienna, Austria
- Baghdad, Iraq
- Dubai, UAE
- Tehran, Iran
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) is headquartered in Vienna, Austria.
Q17. Consider the following statements:
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is a statutory authority.
- CBDT functions as a division of the Ministry of Finance under the Department of Revenue.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct
The Central Board of Direct Taxes
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) is the authority vested with the responsibility of the administration of laws related to direct taxes through the Department of Income Tax.
- It is a statutory authority functioning under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
- CBDT functions as a division of the Ministry of Finance under the Department of Revenue.
Composition and Functions of CBDT
- The Central Board of Direct Taxes consists of a Chairman and six
Members
- Its functions include formulation of policies, dealing with natters relating to levy and collection of direct taxes, and supervision of the functioning of the entire Income Tax Department.
CBDT also proposes legislative changes in direct tax enactments and changes in rates and structure of taxation in tune with the policies of the Government.
Q18. Which of the following are the factors responsible for forest fires in India?
- Climate change.
- Friction created by rubbing of branches
- lack of soil moisture
- Poor monsoons
- Wind speed and direction Select the correct code:
- 1, 2 & 3
- 1, 2, 4 & 5
- 2, 3, 4
- All of the above
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Forest fires can be caused by a number of natural causes, but many major fires in India are triggered mainly by human activities.
- Fires of longer duration, increasing intensity, higher frequency and highly inflammable nature are all being linked to climate change.
- Under natural circumstances, extreme heat and dryness, friction created by rubbing of branches with each other also have been known to initiate fire.
- In Uttarakhand, the lack of soil moisture too is being seen as a key factor.
- Poor monsoons: In two consecutive monsoon seasons (2019 and 2020), rainfall has been deficient by 18% and 20% of the seasonal average, respectively.
Wind speed and direction play a critical role in bringing a forest fire under control. The fire often spreads in the direction of the winds and towards higher elevations.
Q19. Consider the following statements:
- Sputnik V is a two-dose adenovirus based vector vaccine.
- It can be stored at room temperature. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :- Statement 2 is incorrect Sputnik V
- Sputnik V, developed by Gamaleya Research Institute of Epidemiology and Microbiology, is a two-dose adenovirus based vector vaccine, similar in design to AstraZeneca’s Covishield.
- Researchers used common cold viruses in their vaccine prototype.
- Notably, they opted for two different adenovirus vectors (rAd26 and rAd5) delivered separately in a first and second dose, 21 days apart.
- Using the same adenovirus for the two doses could lead to the body developing an immune response against the vector and destroying it when the second dose is administered.
- Two different vectors reduces the chance of this.
- To make the vaccine, the adenoviruses are combined with the SARSCoV-2 spike protein, which prompts the body to make an immune response to it.
- It has reported an efficacy of 91% and has so far been approved for use in 59 countries.
Challenges:
Storage: A challenge with the vaccine is its storage and liquid form of the vaccine requires it to be stored at -18°C or colder storage facilities. o The freeze-dried version of the vaccine can be stored in 2-8°C.
Q20. Consider the following statements:
- He founded the All-India Depressed Classes League in 1935.
- He worked to attain equality for untouchables, contributed to Green Revolution and organized the rural labour movement in Bihar.
Who is the leader mentioned above?
- Abul Kalam Azad
- B R Ambedkar
- Jagjivan Ram
- None
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
- Jagjivan Ram, popularly known as Babuji, was one of India’s greatest Dalit icons who dedicated his life for the betterment of the poor and downtrodden
- Babu Jagjivan Ram contributed greatly towards our country, as a freedom fighter, as a member of the Constituent Assembly and the first Cabinet and as a Deputy PM.
- Babu Jagjivan Ram was also the deputy prime minister of the country between 1977 and 1979.
- He worked to attain equality for untouchables, contributed to Green Revolution and organized rural labour movement in Bihar. Contributions in freedom struggle
- During India’s Independent movement, Babu Jagjivan Ram founded the All-India Depressed Classes League in 1935 that worked towards equality for the ‘untouchables’.
- He was extremely proficient in Sanskrit and was invited to join Banaras Hindu University by the founder Madan Mohan Malviya.
Q21. Consider the following statements:
- The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla road link project (USBRL).
- The project is being carried out under the auspices of the Northern Railways.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Chenab bridge is part of the Udhampur-Srinagar-Baramulla rail link project (USBRL) and completion of the steel arch is an important construction milestone.
- The Chenab Bridge is a railway bridge currently under construction in the Bakkal and Kauri in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir.
- The project is being carried out under the auspices of the Northern Railways.
- Completion time: It was announced on March 17, 2021. The bridge is expected to be open by December 2021
Q22. Which of the following are members of OPEC plus?
- Kazakhstan
- Azerbaijan
- Bahrain Select the correct code:
- 1 & 2
- 2 & 3
- 1 & 3
- 1, 2 & 3
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
OPEC+
- The non-OPEC countries which export crude oil along with the 14 OPEC members are termed as OPEC plus countries.
- OPEC plus countries include Kazakhstan, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan, and Sudan.
- Saudi Arabia and Russia, both have been at the heart of a three-year alliance of oil producers known as OPEC Plus — which now includes 11 OPEC members and 10 non-OPEC nations — that aims to shore up oil prices with production cuts.
Q23. Consider the following statements:
- The Director of CBI has been provided security of two-year tenure in office.
- Based on the recommendations of the Hota Committee on Prevention of Corruption, CBI was established by a resolution of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :- Statement 2 is incorrect
Q24. Union Health & Family Welfare Minister approved the “National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021”. Consider the following statements.
- Under the policy, there are three categories of rare diseases.
- Those who are suffering from rare diseases (diseases listed under Group 1 in the rare disease policy) will have the financial support of up to Rs 20 lakh under the umbrella scheme of PMJAY.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 2 is incorrect.Those who are suffering from rare diseases (diseases listed under Group 1 in the rare disease policy) that require one-time treatment will have the financial support of up to Rs 20 lakh under the umbrella scheme of Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi. Major Provisions of the Policy:
- Objectives: The policy aims to lower the cost of treatment of rare diseases and increase focus on indigenous research and local production of medicines.
- Along with lowering the cost of treatment of rare diseases, the policy aims to increase focus on indigenous research and local production of medicines.
- Categories of Rare diseases: Under the policy, there are three categories of rare diseases — o requiring one-time curative treatment,
- diseases that require long-term treatment but where the cost is low, and
- those needing long-term treatments with high cost.
- Some of the diseases in the first category include osteopetrosis and immune deficiency disorders, among others.
- The Rare Diseases Policy aims to lower the high cost of treatment for rare diseases with increased focus on indigenous research with the help
of a National Consortium to be set up with Department of Health Research, Ministry of Health & Family Welfare as convenor.
- Financial support: Those who are suffering from rare diseases (diseases listed under Group 1 in the rare disease policy) that require one-time treatment will have the financial support of up to Rs 20 lakh under the umbrella scheme of Rashtriya Arogya Nidhi. o It will cover about 40 per cent of the population who are eligible under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
- Beneficiaries for such financial assistance would not be limited to BPL families, but the benefit will be extended to about 40% of the population, who are eligible under Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana.
- Crowdfunding: Besides, the Policy also envisages a crowd funding mechanism in which corporates and individuals will be encouraged to extend financial support through a robust IT platform for treatment of rare diseases.
- A national hospital-based registry of rare diseases will be created to ensure adequate data and comprehensive definitions of such diseases are available for those interested in research and development.
- The Policy also focuses on early screening and prevention through primary and secondary health care infrastructure such as Health and Wellness Centres and District Early Intervention Centres (DEICs) and through counselling for the high-risk parents.
- Screening will also be supported by Nidan Kendras set up by Department of Biotechnology.
Policy also aims to strengthen tertiary health care facilities for prevention and treatment of rare diseases through designating 8 health facilities as Centre of Excellence and these CoEs will also be provided one-time financial support of up to Rs 5 crores for upgradation of diagnostics facilities.
Q25. Sabka Vishwas scheme is related to
- Direct taxes
- Health insurance
- Indirect taxes
- Life insurance
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
The Sabka Vishwas Scheme, 2019 is a scheme proposed in the Union Budget, 2019, and introduced to resolve all disputes relating to the erstwhile Service Tax and Central Excise Acts, which are now subsumed under GST, as well as 26 other Indirect Tax enactments.
Q26. Which of the following are the part of directions of the Supreme Court in Prakash Singh vs Union of India?
- Constitute a State Security Commission in every state
- Constitute a Police Establishment Board in every state
- Provide a minimum tenure of at least four years for the DGP and other key police officers
- 1 & 2
- 2 & 3
- 1 & 3
- 1, 2 & 3
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Directions of the Supreme Court in Prakash Singh vs Union of India In Prakash Singh v. Union of India, the SC relied on the eight reports of the National Police Commission (1979-1981) appointed by the Union.
- Constitute a State Security Commission in every state that will lay down policy for police functioning, evaluate police performance, and ensure that state governments do not exercise unwarranted influence on the police.
- Constitute a Police Establishment Board in every state that will decide postings, transfers and promotions for officers below the rank of
Deputy Superintendent of Police, and make recommendations to the state government for officers of higher ranks.
- Constitute Police Complaints Authorities at the state and district levels to inquire into allegations of serious misconduct and abuse of power by police personnel.
- The commission recommended that there should be a PCA at the state level, headed by a retired judge of the SC or high court chosen out of a panel of names proposed by the chief justice of the state.
- A similar structure was envisaged for the PCA at the district level.
- In addition, the PCAs would be assisted by members selected by the state from panels prepared by the State Human Rights Commission, Lokayuktas and the State Public Service Commissions.
- The state PCA would look into murder, rape and other serious misconduct committed by the police while the district PCA would look into extortion, and incidents involving serious abuse of authority.
- The recommendations of the PCA would be binding on the state.
- Provide a minimum tenure of at least two years for the DGP and other key police officers (e.g., officers in charge of a police station and district) within the state forces, and the Chiefs of the central forces to protect them against arbitrary transfers and postings.
- Ensure that the DGP of state police is appointed from amongst three senior-most officers who have been empanelled for the promotion by the Union Public Service Commission on the basis of length of service, good record and experience.
- Separate the investigating police from the law and order police to ensure speedier investigation, better expertise and improved rapport with the people.
- Constitute a National Security Commission to shortlist the candidates for appointment as Chiefs of the central armed police forces.
Q27. Fortaleza Declaration is related to:
- Asian Development Bank
- New Development Bank
- World Bank
- IMF
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
During the sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014), the leaders signed the Agreement establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).
In the Fortaleza Declaration, the leaders stressed that
- the NDB will strengthen cooperation among BRICS and
- will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global development, thus
- contributing to collective commitments for achieving the goal of strong, sustainable and balanced growth.
Q28. Consider the following statements:
- The five BRICS countries are also members of G-20.
- BRICS nations participate in an annual military exercise called STORM.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 & 2
- None of the above
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Statement 2 is incorrect.
There is no official BRICS military exercise.
About BRICS
BRICS brings together five major emerging economies, comprising 43 percent of the world population, having 30 percent of the world GDP and 17 percent share in the world trade.
- The acronym BRIC was first used in 2001 by Goldman Sachs in their Global Economics Paper.
- BRIC started after the meeting of the leaders of Russia, India and China in St. Petersburg on the margins of G8 Outreach Summit in 2006.
- The grouping was formalised during the first meeting of BRIC foreign ministers on the margins of UNGA in New York in 2006. The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, on June 16, 2009.
- It was agreed to expand BRIC into BRICS with the inclusion of South Africa at the BRIC foreign ministers’ meeting in New York in September 2010.
- The five BRICS countries are also members of G-20.
Q29. Consider the following statements:
- Net-zero means that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
- Net-zero is a state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 & 2
- None of the above
Solution : b)
Explanation :- Statement 2 is correct.
Q30. ‘Anamaya’ has been launched by
- Ministry of Tribal Affairs
- Ministry of Defence
- Ministry of Women and Child Welfare
- Ministry of Rural Development
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Collaborative is a multi-stakeholder initiative of the Tribal Affairs
Ministry supported by Piramal Foundation and Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation (BMGF).
It will converge efforts of various Government agencies and organisations to enhance the health and nutrition status of the tribal communities of India.
Q31. Consider the following statements:
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is a statutory body.
- NABARD provides recommendations to the Reserve Bank of India on the issue of licenses to Cooperative Banks.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 & 2
- None of the above
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct.
- NABARD is a development bank focussing primarily on the rural sector of the country. It is a statutory body established under the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Act, 1981.
- NABARD provides recommendations to Reserve Bank of India on issue of licenses to Cooperative Banks, opening of new branches by State Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).
Q32. Which of the following All India Financial Institutions are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India?
- EXIM Bank (Export-Import Bank) and
- NHB (National Housing Bank)
- Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
- NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) a) 1, 2 & 3
- 1 & 3 only
- 1 & 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 & 4
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
All India Financial Institutions (AIFI)
- It is a group composed of development finance institutions and investment institutions that play a pivotal role in the financial markets.
- The development finance institutions or development finance companies are organizations owned by the government or charitable institution to provide funds for low-capital projects or where their borrowers are unable to get it from commercial lenders.
- There are four institutions under the jurisdiction of Reserve Bank of India as all-India Financial Institutions:
- Export – Import Bank of India (Exim Bank)
- National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) o Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) o National Housing Bank (NHB)
Q33. Consider the following statements:
- The genetic material of the coronavirus is ribonucleic acid (RNA) strands.
- When a virus multiplies inside the cells of a living organism, it creates copies of the RNA.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 & 2
- None of the above
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Both statements are correct.
- Every living organism is run by a predefined set of genes that ‘instruct’ cells how to build proteins.
- The genetic material of the coronavirus is ribonucleic acid (RNA) strands.
- Each virus has about 26,000 to 32,000 bases or RNA “letters” in its length.
- These letters — A, C, U and G — stand for adenine, cytosine, uracil and guanine, nitrogen-containing biological molecules that are the fundamental units of the genetic code.
- How A, C, U and G are arranged in the genetic code determines what proteins are expressed by the organism.
- When a virus multiplies inside the cells of a living organism, it creates copies of the RNA.
- However, the process it uses to make these copies is not perfect, and often introduces tiny errors in the sequence of bases.
- These errors are called genetic mutations.
- Mutations that do not help the survival of the virus eventually get eliminated, while others keep getting copied in the next generation of the virus.
Q34. SAMADHAN doctrine is a new strategy agains
- Left wing extremism
- Marine piracy
- Terrorism in Kashmir
- Tamil extremism
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
SAMADHAN: It stands for
- S- Smart Leadership,
- A- Aggressive Strategy,
- M- Motivation and Training,
- A- Actionable Intelligence,
- D- Dashboard Based KPIs (Key Performance Indicators) and KRAs (Key Result Areas)
- H- Harnessing Technology,
- A- Action plan for each Theatre, and N- No access to Financing.
This doctrine is the one-stop solution for the Left wing extremism (LWE) problem. It encompasses the entire strategy of government from shortterm policy to long-term policy formulated at different levels.
Q35. Which of the following fundamental rights are available to Indian citizens only?
- Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
- Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
- Article 16- Right to equality of opportunity in matter of public employment Select the correct code:
- 1 & 2
- 2 & 3
- 1 & 3
- 1, 2 & 3
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Fundamental Rights for Citizens only
Under the Indian constitution, certain fundamental rights are available only to the citizens, namely:
- Right against discrimination on the grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15);
- Right to equality of opportunity in matter of public employment (Article 16);
- Freedom of speech and expression, assembly, association, movement, residence and profession (Article 19);
- Cultural and educational rights (Article 29 and 30); and
- Right to vote and become members of the union and state legislatures.
Fundamental Rights for Citizens and Foreigners in India
- Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
- Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
- Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
- Article 21A – Right to elementary education.
- Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
- Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
- Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
- Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
- Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
- Article 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
- Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Q36. Consider the following statements:
- India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention on the Status of Refugees 1951 or to the 1967 Protocol.
- The principle of non-refoulement guarantees that no one should be re- turned to a country where they would face torture, cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment and other irreparable harm.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 & 2
- None of the above
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 1 is incorrect.
- India is not a signatory to the United Nations Convention on the Status of Refugees 1951 or to the 1967 Protocol relating to the Status of Refugees and “that the principle of non-refoulement is applicable only to contracting States.
- The 1951 Refugee Convention is a UN treaty that defines who a refugee is and establishes the rights of such persons and also of those who are granted asylum.
- It also talks about the responsibilities and legal obligations of countries that grant asylum status to people.
- The process began under the League of Nations in 1921.
- In July 1951, a diplomatic conference in Geneva adopted the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (‘1951 Convention‘), which was later amended by the 1967 Protocol.
- The principle of non-refoulement guarantees that no one should be re- turned to a country where they would face torture, cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment and other irreparable harm.
Q37. With reference to the India- Seychelles relations, consider the following statements:
- India has handed over a Made-in-India Fast Patrol Vessel to the Seychelles Coast Guard.
- India handed over a One Mega Watt solar power plant in the Seychelles built with India’s assistance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
PM Modi and Seychelles President jointly inaugurate several Indian projects in Seychelles.
- Prime Minister Narendra Modi has said that Seychelles is central to India’s vision of ‘SAGAR’ – ‘Security and Growth for All in the Region’.
- During times of need, India was able to supply essential medicines and 50,000 doses of Made in India vaccines to Seychelles. Seychelles was the First African country to receive the Made in India COVID-19 vaccines.
- India has contributed towards the construction of the new Magistrates’ Court Building in Seychelles.
- For strengthening the maritime security of Seychelles, India has handed over a Made-in-India Fast Patrol Vessel to the Seychelles Coast Guard.
- India handed over a One Mega Watt solar power plant in the Seychelles built with India’s assistance.
- The virtual Summit between the two sides also saw the handing over of 10 High Impact Community Development Projects, HICDPs implemented by the High Commission of India in collaboration with local bodies, educational and vocational institutions.
- Present President of Seychelles, Wavel Ramkalawan is a Person of Indian origin (PIO) with his roots in Gopalganj, Bihar.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Q38. With reference to the Drones, consider the following statements:
- Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) and Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) have granted conditional exemption to Central Mine Planning and Design Institute (CMPDI) for surveying in coalfield areas of Coal India Ltd.
- The conditional exemption is valid till 04 April 2022 from the date of issue of the letter or until the full operationalization of Digital Sky Platform (Phase1), whichever is earlier.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Drone use permission granted to Central Mine Planning and Design Institute for coalfield survey.
- Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) and Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) have granted conditional exemption to Central Mine Planning and Design Institute (CMPDI) for surveying in coalfield areas of Coal India Ltd.
- As per the permission, the drones will be deployed for acquisition of data for monitoring of Mapping and Surveying activity using UAV Based Optical, LiDAR and Thermal Payloads, volumetric measurement, and, inspections in coalfield areas of Coal India Limited.
- The conditional exemption is valid till 04 April 2022 from the date of issue of the letter or until the full operationalization of Digital Sky Platform (Phase-1), whichever is earlier.
- Exemption from Ministry of Civil Aviation must be obtained from UAS Rules, 2021 before operation.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Q39. With reference to the Net-zero goal, consider the following statements:
- It means that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
- The net-zero goal does not figure in the 2015 Paris Agreement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
John Kerry, the US President’s Special Envoy on Climate, is currently on a three-day visit to India. One of the objectives of Kerry’s visit is to explore whether India can agree to the possibility of pledging itself to a 2050 net-zero goal.
- Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring down its emissions to zero.
- Rather, net-zero is a state in which a country’s emissions are compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
- Absorption of the emissions can be increased by creating more carbon sinks such as forests, while removal of gases from the atmosphere requires futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage.
- This way, it is even possible for a country to have negative emissions, if the absorption and removal exceed the actual emissions. A good example is Bhutan which is often described as carbon-negative because it absorbs more than it emits.
Significance of net-zero goal for 2050
- A very active campaign has been going on for the last two years to get every country to sign on to a net-zero goal for 2050.
- It is being argued that global carbon neutrality by 2050 is the only way to achieve the Paris Agreement target of keeping the planet’s temperature from rising beyond 2°C compared to pre-industrial times.
- Current policies and actions being taken to reduce emissions would not even be able to prevent a 3–4°C rise by the turn of the century.
- India, the world’s third biggest emitter of greenhouse gases, after the US and China, is the only one opposing this target because it is likely to be the most impacted by it.
- Over the next two to three decades, India’s emissions are likely to grow at the fastest pace in the world, as it presses for higher growth to pull hundreds of millions of people out of poverty.
- No amount of afforestation or reforestation would be able to compensate for the increased emissions. Most of the carbon removal technologies right now are either unreliable or very expensive.
- India also argues that the net-zero goal does not figure in the 2015 Paris Agreement, the new global architecture to fight climate change. The Paris Agreement only requires every signatory to take the best climate action it can.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Q40. In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to:
- Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
- Lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
- Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
- None of the above
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
RBI Governor has announced Government Securities Acquisition Programme (G-SAP), through which it will purchase government securities worth Rs 1 lakh crore in the first quarter of FY22.
- In the backdrop of the government’s elevated borrowing for this year, which the RBI has to ensure goes through without causing disruption, G-SAP aims to provide more comfort to the bond market.
- Market participants always wanted to know the RBI’s Open Market Operations (OMO) purchase calendar, and the RBI has now provided that to the market through this announcement on GSAP.
- it will provide certainty to the bond market participants with regard to RBI’s commitment of support to the bond market in FY22.
The announcement of this structured programme will help reduce the spread between the repo rate and the 10-year government bond yield. That, in turn,
will help to reduce the aggregate cost of borrowing for the Centre and states in FY22.
- Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Q41. Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Sarvekshak’, that was in the news recently?
- Hydrographic survey ship
- Nuclear-powered submarine
- Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
- Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
INS Sarvekshak, a hydrographic survey ship, is on a deployment to Mauritius for undertaking joint hydrographic surveys along with their Mauritian counterparts.
- During the deployment, training of Mauritian personnel on advanced hydrographic equipment and practices will also be undertaken. The ship visited Port Louis, Mauritius and commenced the hydrographic survey of ‘Deep sea area off Port Louis’.
- INS Sarvekshak, a specialised survey ship is fitted with state-of-the-art survey equipment like Deep Sea Multi-Beam Echo Sounder, Side Scan Sonars and a fully automated digital surveying and processing system.
- In addition, the ship carries an integral Chetak helicopter, which would be extensively deployed during the survey.
- INS Sarvekshak has undertaken various foreign cooperation surveys over the last few years in Mauritius, Seychelles, Tanzania and Kenya.
- Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q42. ‘Lab on Wheels’ programme, recently seen in news, is an initiative of:
- Delhi Technological University
- MG University
- IIT Bombay
- Anna University
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Delhi Education Minister Manish Sisodia has inaugurated Delhi Technological University’s ‘Lab on Wheels’ programme.
- It will have students of the university travelling in a bus across Delhi to teach government school students and underprivileged children.
- The idea is to impart education in the fields of Mathematics and Science to those students who come from marginalised and poor economic backgrounds, in order to pique their interests in these subjects while pursuing higher education.
- In the end, the hope is that it becomes mutually beneficial, if some of these students decide to take admission in DTU once they finish schooling.
- The ‘Lab on Wheels’ will comprise 16 computers, two televisions, one 3D printer, one laptop, cameras and one printer. It will be Wi-Fi enabled, with 100 per cent power back up and fully air-conditioned.
- Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q43. Shitalakshya River is a distributary of which of the following river?
- Brahmaputra
- Yamuna
- Ganga
- Krishna
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
A Bangladesh ferry carrying around 50 passengers collided with a cargo vessel and sank in the Shitalakhsya River in Narayanganj in Bangladesh, leaving at least 26 people dead.
Shitalakshya River (also known as Lakhya River) is a distributary of the Brahmaputra.
- In its initial stages it flows in a southwest direction and then east of the city of Narayanganj in central Bangladesh until it merges with the Dhaleswari near Kalagachhiya.
- A portion of its upper course is known as Banar River.
- Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q44. With reference to the National Super Computing Mission (NSM), consider the following statements:
- The National Supercomputing Mission was launched to enhance the research capacities and capabilities in the country by connecting them to form a Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.
- PARAM Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
India is fast emerging a leader in high power computing with the National Super Computing Mission (NSM).
- The National Supercomputing Mission was launched to enhance the research capacities and capabilities in the country by connecting them to form a Supercomputing grid, with National Knowledge Network (NKN) as the backbone.
- The Mission is being jointly steered by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) and implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC), Pune, and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
Phases:
- Computing infrastructure has already been installed in four premier institutions and installation work is in rapid progress in 9 more.
- Completion in of Phase II of NSM in September 2021 will take the country’s computing power to 16 Petaflops (PF).
- Phase III, initiated this year, will take the computing speed to around 45 Petaflops. This will include three systems of 3 PF each and one system of 20PF as a national facility.
List of supercomputers:
- PARAM Shivay, the first supercomputer assembled indigenously, was installed in IIT (BHU), followed by PARAM Shakti, PARAM Brahma, PARAM Yukti, PARAM Sanganak at IIT-Kharagpur IISER, Pune, JNCASR, Bengaluru and IIT Kanpur respectively.
- PARAM Siddhi – AI, the high-performance computing-artificial intelligence (HPC-AI) supercomputer, has achieved global ranking of 62 in TOP 500 most powerful supercomputer systems in the world, released on 16th November 2020.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Q45. Global Gender Gap Report 2021 is published by:
- World Economic Forum
- World Bank
- UNESCO
- None of the above
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
India has fallen 28 places in the World Economic Forum’s Global Gender Gap Report 2021, and is now one of the worst performers in South Asia, trailing behind neighbours Bangladesh, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Myanmar.
- India is now ranked 140 among 156 countries.
South Asia incidentally is one of the worst performing regions, followed only by the Middle East and northern Africa.
- many countries have fared worse in this year’s rankings compared to last year’s, on account of economic performance.
- On its current trajectory, it will now take 135.6 years to close the gender gap worldwide.
- The gender gap in political empowerment remains the largest: women represent only 26.1 per cent of some 35,500 parliament seats and just 22.6 per cent of over 3,400 ministers worldwide, according to the report.
- In 81 countries, there has never been a woman head of state, as of January 15, 2021.
- Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q46. Chenab Railway bridge, often mentioned in news, is located in: a) Ladakh
- Punjab
- Himachal Pradesh
- Jammu & Kashmir
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The Prime Minister has lauded the completion of Arch closure of the Chenab Bridge, World’s highest Railway Bridge in Jammu & Kashmir by Indian Railways.
- The length of the Chenab bridge will be 1,315 metres with 17 spans, of which the span of the main arch across Chenab river will be 467m.
- The bridge is part of an ambitious 272-km rail link project and is being constructed by the Northern Railway at an estimated cost of ₹28,000 crore.
- The bridge will be able to withstand earthquakes with a magnitude of up to eight and high-intensity blasts.
- The bridge, which will include a 14-metre dual carriageway and a 1.2-metrewide central verge, will have a design speed of around 100 kilometres per hour with a lifespan of 120 years.
- Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q47. With reference to the INS Viraat, consider the following statements:
1. INS Viraat was a Centaur-class aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy 2. The ship was completed and commissioned in 1959 as the Royal Navy’s HMS Hermes, and decommissioned in 1984.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
INS Viraat, the Navy’s decommissioned aircraft carrier, has become the “private property” of a ship-breaker who has already torn down 40% of its body, chiefly for scrap, the Supreme Court told a private company, that wants to turn the vessel into a maritime museum-cum-adventure centre.
- On February 10, the court had ordered a stay on the process of dismantling the ship.
- The carrier was bought by the Gujarat-based Shree Ram Group, a shipbreaking firm, in a bid. The 67-year-old iconic warship was towed to the breaking yard after over three decades’ service in the Navy.
- INS Viraat was a Centaur-class aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy.
- INS Viraat was the flagship of the Indian Navy before INS Vikramaditya was commissioned in 2013.
- The ship was completed and commissioned in 1959 as the Royal Navy’s HMS Hermes, and decommissioned in 1984. It was sold to India in 1987. INS Viraat was commissioned into the Indian Navy in 1987 served till 2016 when it was decommissioned.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Q48. “Sankalp se Siddhi” – Village and Digital Connect Drive is an initiative of:
- TRIFED
- NITI Aayog
- Greenpeace
- None of the above
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
TRIFED under Ministry of Tribal Affairs has now launched “Sankalp se Siddhi” – Village and Digital Connect Drive.
- It is a 100 day drive which was stared from April 1, 2021.
- The drive will entail 150 teams visiting ten villages each of which 10 in each region from TRIFED and State Implementation Agencies, visiting ten villages each.
- The main aim of this drive is to activate the Van Dhan Vikas Kendras in these villages.
- The visiting teams will also identify locations and shortlist potential Van Dhan
Vikas Kendras for clustering as TRIFOOD, and Scheme of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional Industries- SFURTI units as larger enterprises.
- TRIFOOD aims to enhance the income of tribals through better utilization of and value addition to the Minor Forest Produce collected by the tribal forest gatherers.
- Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
Q49. With reference to the Ingenuity, consider the following statements: 1. Ingenuity is a small robotic helicopter located on Mars since February 18, 2021.
2. It is intended to make the first powered atmospheric flight on a planet beyond Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
In another major success for the US space agency NASA, its Mars helicopter Ingenuity has been dropped on the surface of the Red Planet ahead of its historic first flight scheduled for April 11.
- Ingenuity is a small robotic helicopter located on Mars since February 18, 2021 that is intended to make the first powered atmospheric flight on a planet beyond Earth.
- Part of NASA’s Mars 2020 mission, the small coaxial, drone rotorcraft will serve as a technology demonstrator for the potential use of flying probes on other worlds, with the potential to scout locations of interest and support the future planning of driving routes for Mars rovers.
- Ingenuity, now on the Martian surface, was attached to the underside of the Perseverance rover.
- Hence both statements are correct.
Q50. With reference to the Muon g–2 experiment, consider the following statements:
- It measured a quantity relating to the muon, following up a previous experiment at Brookhaven National Laboratory, under the US Department of Energy.
- The rate at which the muon wobbles is described by the g-factor, the quantity that was measured.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both 1 and 2
- Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Newly published results of an international experiment hint at the possibility of new physics governing the laws of nature.
- The results of the experiment, which studied a subatomic particle called the muon, do not match the predictions of the Standard Model, on which all particle physics is based, and instead reconfirm a discrepancy that had been detected in an experiment 20 years previously.
- The experiment, called Muon g–2 (g minus two), was conducted at the US Department of Energy’s Fermi National Accelerator Laboratory (Fermilab).
- The Standard Model is a rigorous theory that predicts the behaviour of the building blocks of the universe.
- It lays out the rules for six types of quarks, six leptons, the Higgs boson, three fundamental forces, and how the subatomic particles behave under the influence of electromagnetic forces.
- The muon is one of the leptons. It is similar to the electron, but 200 times larger, and much more unstable, surviving for a fraction of a second. Muon g–2 experiment
- It measured a quantity relating to the muon, following up a previous experiment at Brookhaven National Laboratory, under the US Department of Energy.
- Concluded in 2001, the Brookhaven experiment came up with results that did not identically match predictions by the Standard Model.
- The Muon g–2 experiment measured this quantity with greater accuracy.
- It is called the g–factor, a measure that derives from the magnetic properties of the muon.
- The rate at which the muon wobbles is described by the g-factor, the quantity that was measured.
- This value is known to be close to 2, so scientists measure the deviation from
2. Hence the name g–2.
- Hence both statements are correct.