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13 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

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13 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC)

  1. Under the Charter of the United Nations, all Member States of the UN are obligated to comply with Council decisions.
  2. It can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force.
  3. Non-permanent members of the council are elected for a two-year term by the General Assembly on a regional basis. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 1 and 3 only
    d) All of the above

Solution : d)
Explanation :- About UNSC:
• The Security Council has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
• Under the Charter of the United Nations, all Member States are obligated to comply with Council decisions.
• The Security Council takes the lead in determining the existence of a threat to the peace or act of aggression.
• It calls upon the parties to a dispute to settle it by peaceful means and recommends methods of adjustment or terms of settlement.
• In some cases, the Security Council can resort to imposing sanctions or even authorize the use of force to maintain or restore international peace and security
Membership
• The Security Council is made up of fifteen member states – consisting of o five permanent members – China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the
United States and o Ten non-permanent members elected for a two-year term by the General Assembly on a regional basis.
• “Veto power” refers to the power of the permanent member to veto (Reject) any resolution of the Security Council.
• Each year the General Assembly elects five non-permanent members by 2/3rd majority (out of 10 in total) for a two-year term. In accordance with the General Assembly resolution 1991 (XVIII) of 17 December 1963. o To be approved, a candidate must receive at least two-thirds of all votes cast for that seat, which can result in a deadlock if there are two roughly evenly matched candidates.
o A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.
• The 10 non-permanent seats are distributed on a regional basis as follows:
o five for African and Asian States; o one for Eastern European States;
o two for the Latin American and Caribbean States; o two for Western European and other States.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.
Q2. Which of the following statements about the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana is/are correct?

  1. There is a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and
    1.5% for all Rabi crops.
  2. In the case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers is only 5%.
  3. Surge in extreme weather events is lowering the premiums to be paid by the government.
    Select the correct code using the options given below:
    a) 1 & 2 only
    b) 1 only
    c) 3 only
    d) All of the above

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Statement 3 is incorrect – The companies are increasing the premium amount to compensate for the higher risk due to the extreme weather events. Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q3. Consider the following statements about SAARC:

  1. Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, Mauritius, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
  2. China is its observer nation.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
What is SAARC?
• The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) is the regional intergovernmental organization and geopolitical union of nations in South Asia founded in 1985 with 7 member nations.
• The SAARC Secretariat was established in Kathmandu in 1987.
• The SAARC Secretariat is supported by following Regional Centres established in the Member States to promote regional cooperation.
Members and Observers of SAARC
Member Nations
• Its member states include Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, the Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka.
• Observer Nations o States with observer status include Australia, China, the European Union, Iran, Japan, Mauritius, Myanmar, South Korea and the United States.
South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA).
• Although the agreement was reached at the 12th SAARC summit in 2004, it came into force on 1st January 2006.
• The agreement not only created a free trade area of 1.8 billion people in SAARC nations (except Afghanistan), but also removed trade barriers to increase the level of economic cooperation.
Aim of SAFTA
• The main objective of the agreement is to promote competition in the area and to provide equitable benefits to the countries involved.
• It aims to benefit the people of the countries by bringing transparency and integrity among the nations.
• SAFTA encourages and elevates common contracts among the countries such as medium and long term contracts.
• It involves agreement on tariff concessions like national duties concession and nontariff concession.
• Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q4. Consider the following statements about the Contempt of Court Act, 1971:

  1. Section 2(c)(i) defines criminal contempt as publication or doing of any act that “scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of any court”.
  2. Section 10 of the act defines the power of the Supreme Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.
    Which of the above statements is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
• The Contempt of Court Act, 1971, outlines the procedure in relation to investigation and punishment for contempt. o Section 2(c)(i) defines criminal contempt as publication or doing of any act that “scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of any court”. o Section 10 of the act defines the power of the High Court to punish contempts of its subordinate courts.
• The Act divides contempt into:
o Civil contempt: It refers to the willful disobedience of an order of any court.
o Criminal contempt: It includes any act or publication which: Scandalises the court (broadly refers to statements or publications which have the effect of undermining public confidence in the judiciary), Prejudices any judicial proceeding, Interferes with the administration of justice in any other manner.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q5. With reference to the Kayakalp award, consider the following statements:

  1. The government had launched a National Initiative ‘Kayakalp’ on 15th May 2015 to ensure hygiene, sanitation and cleanliness in Public Health Facilities in India.
  2. Currently the participation is limited only to central government institutions. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Public and Private Health Facilities were felicitated with Kayakalp award for high standards of Sanitation and Hygiene.
• The government had launched a National Initiative ‘Kayakalp’ on 15th May 2015 to ensure hygiene, sanitation and cleanliness in Public Health Facilities in India.
• The scheme, which saw the participation of 716 District Hospitals and central government institutions in its first year has spread to 26 thousand 172 public health facilities now.
• Health Ministry had collaborated with Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation and launched Swachh Swasth Sarvatra programme, under which, one community health centre (CHCs) situated within ODF block receives one-time grant of 10 lakh rupees for undertaking improvement activities, so that the CHC becomes Kayakalp CHC.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q6. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yajana (PMFBY), consider the following statements: 1. It was launched in 2006.

  1. The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield data is available and for which requisite number of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) are being conducted under General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Crop Insurance Scheme- The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yajana (PMFBY) successfully completes 5 Years of operations on 13th January 2021.
• The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched in 2016 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• It is an insurance service scheme for farmers for their yields. It aims to reduce the premium burden on farmers and ensure early settlement of crop assurance claim for the full insured sum.
• It was formulated in line with One Nation–One Scheme theme by replacing earlier two schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS).
• The Scheme covers all Food & Oilseeds crops and Annual Commercial/Horticultural Crops for which past yield data is available and for which requisite number of Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) are being conducted under General Crop Estimation Survey (GCES).
• The scheme is implemented by empanelled general insurance companies. The scheme is being administered by Ministry of Agriculture.
• The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC account for notified crops and voluntary for other others.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q7. With reference to the Nubra valley, consider the following statements:

  1. Nubra is a subdivision and a tehsil in the union territory of Jammu & Kashmir.
  2. Its inhabited areas form a tri-armed valley cut by the Nubra and Shyok rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
In Leh, the first ever Ice climbing festival was celebrated in Nubra valley. The Seven Day event was organized by Nubra Adventure Club. Ice climbing is a popular winter sport abroad. Taking the cue, local adventure sports lovers have explored several ice climbing spots in Nubra valley to attract the adventure tourists to the region.
Nubra is a subdivision and a tehsil in the union territory of Ladakh. Its inhabited areas form a tri-armed valley cut by the Nubra and Shyok rivers. The Shyok River meets the Nubra River (or Siachan River) to form a large valley that separates the Ladakh and Karakoram Ranges. The Shyok river is a tributary of the Indus river.
Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Q8. Which of the following is/are the freshwater lakes?

  1. Lake Chad
  2. Wular Lake
  3. Chilika Lake
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 1 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : b)
Explanation :-
India has expressed serious concern over the security situation in the Sahel and Lake Chad region in West Africa. India also condemned terrorist attacks by Boko Haram in Nigeria and Lake Chad region and by Islamic State in West Africa.
• Lake Chad is a historically large, shallow, endorheic lake in central Africa, which has varied in size over the centuries.
• The freshwater lake is located in the Sahelian zone of West-central Africa. Lake Chad is mainly in the far west of Chad, bordering on northeastern Nigeria.
• Lake Chad provides water to more than 30 million people living in the four countries surrounding it (Chad, Cameroon, Niger, and Nigeria) on the central part of the Sahel.
• It is the largest lake in the Chad Basin.
• The Chari River, fed by its tributary the Logone, provides over 90% of the lake’s water, with a small amount coming from the Yobe River in Nigeria/Niger.
• Despite high levels of evaporation, the lake is fresh water.
Wular Lake is one of the biggest freshwater lakes in Asia. Chilika Lake in Odisha is the largest saline water lake in India.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q9. With reference to the Atal Tinkering Lab handbook 2.0, consider the following statements:

  1. It outlines a practical guidance on structural, selection, establishment and celebration aspects of the AIM’s flagship ATL programme.
  2. An Atal Tinkering Lab provides a makerspace where young minds can give shape to their ideas through hands on do-it-yourself mode; and learn innovation skills. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    a) 1 only
    b) 2 only
    c) Both 1 and 2
    d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog launched its new edition of Atal Tinkering Lab handbook which reinforces detailed establishment and operational processes of the Atal Tinkering Labs and its journey towards an innovative ‘Aatmanirbhar Bharat’.
• The handbook named ‘The Atal Tinkering Lab Handbook 2.0’ outlines a practical guidance on structural, selection, establishment and celebration aspects of the AIM’s flagship ATL programme.
• The ATL Handbook encompasses work done by the AIM team in a framework using 4 key pillars of the ATL initiative – Selection, Establishment, Enablement, and Celebration.
• An Atal Tinkering Lab provides a makerspace where young minds can give shape to their ideas through hands on do-it-yourself mode; and learn innovation skills.
• To foster entrepreneurship and innovation, Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog has established over 7000 ATLs across the country so far enabling over 3 Million+ students between Grade VI to Grade XII acquire a problem solving, tinkering and innovative mindset.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q10. Which of the following states successfully undertaken “Urban Local Bodies (ULB)” reforms stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance?

  1. Kerala
  2. Manipur
  3. Tamil Nadu
    Select the correct answer using the code given below:
    a) 2 only
    b) 1 and 2 only
    c) 2 and 3 only
    d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : a)
Explanation :-
Manipur has become the 4th State in the country to successfully undertake “Urban Local Bodies (ULB)” reforms stipulated by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance in its letter to the States dated 17th May, 2020.
• Thus, the State has become eligible to mobilise additional financial resources of Rs.75 crore through Open Market Borrowings.
• Manipur has now joined the three other States namely, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana, who have completed this reform.
• Reforms in the Urban Local Bodies and the urban utilities reforms are aimed at financial strenghtening of ULBs in the States and to enable them to provide better public health and sanitation services.
• Economically rejuvenated ULBs will also be able to create good civic infrastructure.
The reforms stipulated by the Department of Expenditure to achieve these objectives are:
• The State will notify (a) floor rates of property tax in ULBs which are in consonance with the prevailing circle rates (i.e. guideline rates for property transactions) and (b) floor rates of user charges in respect of the provision of water-supply, drainage and sewerage which reflect current costs/ past inflation.
• The State will put in place a system of periodic increase in floor rates of property tax/ user charges in line with price increases.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.