
18-21 NOV CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)
Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to Tropical Storms
1. The tropical cyclones that form over the Atlantic Ocean or the eastern Pacific Ocean are
called typhoons.
2. The tropical cyclones that form in the Northwest Pacific are called hurricanes.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
About Tropical cyclones or hurricanes
Location: They use warm, moist air as fuel and therefore form over warm ocean
waters near the equator.
Mechanism :
o When the warm, moist air rises upward from the surface of the ocean, it
creates an area of low air pressure below.
o After this, the air from the surrounding areas, which has higher pressure,
enters this space, eventually rising when it becomes warm and moist too.
o As the warm and moist air continues to rise, the surrounding air will keep
entering the area of low air pressure.
o Ultimately, when the warm air rises and cools off, the water in the air forms
clouds.
o And this corresponding system of clouds and winds continues to grow and
spin, fuelled by the ocean’s heat and the water that evaporates from its
surface.
o As such storm systems rotate faster and faster, an eye forms in the center.
Direction:
o Storms that form towards the north of the equator rotate counter-clockwise.
o On the other hand, those that form south of the equator spin clockwise
because of the rotation of the Earth on its axis.
No difference between a hurricane and a tropical storm
o Depending on where they occur, hurricanes may be called typhoons or
cyclones.
o As per NASA, the scientific name for all these kinds of storms is tropical
cyclones.
o The tropical cyclones that form over the Atlantic Ocean or the eastern
Pacific Ocean are called hurricanes.
On the other hand, tropical cyclones that form in the Northwest Pacific are called typhoons.
Q2. Consider the following statements with reference to BRICS
1. All members of BRICS are members of G20.
2. The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, in 2009.
3. During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014) the leaders signed the Agreement
establishing the New Development Bank (NDB)
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
BRICS is the acronym coined for an association of five major emerging national
economies: Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa.
As a formal grouping, BRIC started after the meeting of the leaders of Russia, India
and China in St Petersburg on the margins of the G8-Outreach Summit in July 2006.
The first BRIC Summit was held in Yekaterinburg, Russia, on June 16, 2009.
The BRICS members are known for their significant influence on regional affairs. All
members of BRICS are members of G20.
Initially, the bloc included only four nations and was termed as BRIC, as South Africa
became a member of the bloc only in 2010.
At the Fourth BRICS Summit in New Delhi (2012) the possibility of setting up a new
Development Bank was considered to mobilize resources for infrastructure and
sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies, as well
as in developing countries.
During the Sixth BRICS Summit in Fortaleza (2014) the leaders signed the Agreement
establishing the New Development Bank (NDB).
The Fortaleza Declaration stressed that the NDB will strengthen cooperation among
BRICS and will supplement the efforts of multilateral and regional financial
institutions for global development thus contributing to sustainable and balanced
growth.
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to the Messenger RNA (mRNA)
1. It is a single-stranded molecule of Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) that corresponds to the
genetic sequence of a gene and is read by a ribosome in the process of synthesizing a
protein.
2. As in DNA, genetic information in mRNA is contained in the sequence of nucleotides,
which are arranged into codons consisting of three base pairs each.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Messenger RNA (mRNA):
It is a single-stranded molecule of Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) that corresponds to the
genetic sequence of a gene and is read by a ribosome in the process of synthesizing
a protein.
Transcription is when RNA is made from DNA. During transcription, RNA polymerase
makes a copy of a gene from the DNA to mRNA as needed.
mRNA is created during the process of transcription, where an enzyme (RNA
polymerase) converts the gene into primary transcript mRNA (also known as pre-
mRNA).
As in DNA, genetic information in mRNA is contained in the sequence of
nucleotides, which are arranged into codons consisting of three base pairs each.
The existence of mRNA was first suggested by Jacques Monod and François Jacob,
and was subsequently discovered by Jacob, Sydney Brenner and Matthew Meselson
at the California Institute of Technology in 1961.
Q4. Consider the following statements with respect to the appointment of Additional and
Acting judges as judge of a High Court in India
1. The President can also appoint a duly qualified person as an additional judge of a
high court when a judge of that high court is unable to perform the duties of his
office due to absence or any other reason.
2. The President can appoint duly qualified persons as acting judges of a high court for
a temporary period not exceeding two years when there is a temporary increase in
the business of the high court.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Article 224: Appointment of additional and acting Judges
Additional and Acting Judges: The President can appoint duly qualified persons as additional
judges of a high court for a temporary period not exceeding two years when
There is a temporary increase in the business of the high court
There are arrears of work in the high court.
The President can also appoint a duly qualified person as an acting judge of a high court
when a judge of that high court (other than the chief justice) is
Unable to perform the duties of his office due to absence or any other reason or
Appointed to act temporarily as chief justice of that high court.
An acting judge holds office until the permanent judge resumes his office. However, both
the additional or acting judge cannot hold office after attaining the age of 62 years.
Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. The pardoning power “under Articles 72 and 161 of the Constitution can be
exercised by the President or Governor on their own.
2. Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the SC can commute a death sentence.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
In Maru Ram v. Union of India (1981), the SC held that the pardoning power “under Articles
72 and 161 of the Constitution can be exercised by the Central and the State
Governments, not by the President or Governor on their own.”
The advice of the appropriate Government binds the Head of the State.
To test the constitutionality of the order or resolution is a power reserved exclusively
for constitutional courts of the country.
Shatrugan Chouhan v. Union of India: The SC laid down the principle of
“presumption of dehumanising effect of delay”.
o Under Article 32 of the Constitution, the SC commuted the death sentences
of 15 convicts when an inordinate delay to perform a constitutional function
was brought to its notice.
o The Supreme Court confirmed that the due process guaranteed under Article
21 was available to each and every prisoner “till his last breath”.
Q6. The Mahajan commission report, recently seen in the news, is related to
a) Maharashtra- Karnataka boundary dispute
b) Conservation of western ghats
c) Interstate river dispute
d) None of the above
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Mahajan Commission report
Background: While demarcating borders, the States Commission of Reorganisation
sought to include talukas with a Kannada-speaking population of more than 50
percent in Mysore.
o On the other hand, opponents of the region’s inclusion in Mysore argued,
and continue to argue, that Marathi-speakers outnumbered
Kannadigas who lived there in 1956.
o Later on, in 1957, the Bombay government echoed their demand and lodged
a protest with the Centre, leading to the formation of the Mahajan
Commission under former Chief Justice Mehr Chand Mahajan in October
1966.
Recommendations: The Commission submitted its report in August 1967,
o It recommended that 264 villages be transferred to Maharashtra (which
formed in 1960) and that Belgaum and 247 villages remain with Karnataka.
Aftermath:
o Maharashtra: It rejected the report, calling it biased and illogical, and
demanded another review.
o Karnataka: It welcomed the report, and has ever since continued to press for
implementation, although this has not been formally done by the Centre.
Q7. Consider the following statements with reference to the National Population Register
(NPR)
1.NPR is a database of usual residents in the country who have stayed in a local area for the
past six months or more.
2.Data for the NPR was first collected in 2010 and updated in 2015.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
About NPR
First created in 2010, NPR is a database of usual residents in the country who have
stayed in a local area for the past six months or more and who intend to remain in
the same place for the next six months or more.
NPR is individual and identity specific, unlike the Census which only provides
information on the status of the residents of India and population swings.
The electronic database of more than 119 crore usual residents of the country has
already been created under the NPR in English as well as the regional languages.
The data collection is done under the aegis of the Office of the Registrar General and
Census Commissioner of India.
The NPR is undertaken under the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The
Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules,
2003.
NPR was last updated, except in Assam and Meghalaya, in 2015-16.
Q8. Consider the following statements with regard to the National Supercomputing
Mission (NSM)
1. It was announced in 2016, with an aim to connect national academic and R&D
institutions with a grid of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities.
2. It is jointly steered by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of
Science and Technology (DST).
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About National Supercomputing Mission (NSM):
Announced in 2015, with an aim to connect national academic and R&D institutions
with a grid of more than 70 high-performance computing facilities at an estimated
cost of ₹4,500 crores over the period of seven years.
o The long-term plan is to build a strong base of 20,000 skilled persons over the
next five years.
It is jointly steered by the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY) and Department of
Science and Technology (DST).
It is implemented by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC),
Pune and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru.
An effort to improve the number of supercomputers owned by India: These
supercomputers will also be networked on the National Supercomputing grid over
the National Knowledge Network (NKN).
o The NKN connects academic institutions and R&D labs over a high-speed
network.
It supports the government’s vision of Digital India and Make in India initiatives.
Q9. Guillain Barre Syndrome can be caused by
a) Bacteria
b) Virus
c) Both a and b
d) None of these
Solution : c)
Explanation :-
Guillain Barre Syndrome
It is a very rare autoimmune disorder in which the immune system, in an attempt to
kill the coronavirus, accidentally starts attacking the peripheral nervous system.
o The peripheral nervous system is a network of nerves that lead from the
brain and spinal cord to different parts of the body. Attacking them can affect
limb functions.
o An overactive immune system can attack healthy nerves along with attacking
the virus.
Causes: GBS is caused by bacteria or viral infections like Middle East Respiratory
Syndrome, Zika, HIV, Herpes virus and Campylobacter jejuni.
Symptoms: Itching sensation in the skin, muscle weakness, pain and numbness in
feet and hands. Reflex loss and paralysis can last for 6-12 months or longer.
o GBS can leave behind permanent neurological damage.
Treatment
o Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) and plasma therapy helps recovery in
patients with GBS.
Q10. The Chapare virus belongs to the
a) Arenaviridae
b) Bunyaviridae
c) Filoviridae
d) Flaviviridae.
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The Chapare virus
The Chapare hemorrhagic fever (CHHF) is caused by the same arenavirus family that
is responsible for illnesses such as the Ebola virus disease (EVD).
o An arenavirus is a bisegmented ambisense RNA virus that is a member of the
family Arenaviridae.
o These viruses infect rodents and occasionally humans.
The biggest outbreak of the ‘Chapare virus’ was reported in 2019, in the Bolivian
capital of La Paz. The virus is named Chapare after the province in which it was first
observed.
Transmission: Arenaviruses are generally carried by rats and can be transmitted through
direct contact with the infected rodent, its droppings, or through contact with an infected
person.
Q11. Which of the following countries form the part of Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
1.Australia
2.Canada
3.India
Answer using the correct codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is a regional economic
forum established in 1989 to leverage the growing interdependence of the Asia-
Pacific.
Objective: To create greater prosperity for the people of the region by promoting
balanced, inclusive, sustainable, innovative and secure growth and by accelerating
regional economic integration.
Members: APEC has 21 members.
o The criterion for membership is that the members should be a separate
economy, rather than a state.
o The founding members were Australia; Brunei Darussalam; Canada;
Indonesia; Japan; Korea; Malaysia; New Zealand; the Philippines; Singapore;
Thailand; and the United States.
China; Hong Kong, China; and Chinese Taipei joined in 1991.
Mexico and Papua New Guinea in 1993.
Chile joined in 1994. And in 1998, Peru, Russia and Vietnam joined.
3 official observers – ASEAN, the Pacific Islands Forum and the Pacific
Economic Cooperation Council.
o India was invited to be an observer for the first time in November 2011. India
is not in the grouping and has applied for membership.
Other details:
o APEC countries collectively account for nearly 50% of the world’s trade and
about 57% of GDP.
o The creation of APEC was primarily in response to the increasing
interdependence of Asia-Pacific economies.
o Also, the proliferation of regional economic blocs, such as the European
Union (EU) and the now-defunct, North American Free Trade Area (NAFTA),
encouraged its formation.
o In 1994 during the Bogor, Indonesia summit, APEC set the Bogor Goals of
“free and open trade and investment in the Asia-Pacific by 2010 for
industrialized economies and 2020 for developing economies.”
Q12. Which of the following states form a part of the integrated steel hub in mission
Purvodaya
1.Jharkhand
2.Chhattisgarh
3.West Bengal
Answer using the correct codes below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
The Ministry of Steel in partnership with CII and JPC is organizing the launch of
Purvodaya-Accelerated Development of Eastern Region through an Integrated Steel
hub, in line with government Vision for focused development of the Eastern States.
About the integrated steel hub
The proposed Integrated Steel Hub, encompasses Odisha, Jharkhand,
Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Northern Andhra Pradesh.
The Integrated Steel Hub would focus on 3 key elements:
Capacity addition through easing the setup of greenfield steel plants.
Development of steel clusters near integrated steel plants as well as demand
centers.
Transformation of logistics and utility infrastructure which would change the socio-
economic landscape in the East.
Q13. Consider the following statements with reference to neutralizing antibodies
1. They are a small subset of the disease-specific antibodies that are generated once an
infection has occurred.
2. The neutralising antibodies, as also other antibodies, decrease with time
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Neutralizing antibodies
These are like other antibodies that are created to fight the disease, are nothing but
proteins.
The neutralizing antibodies are a small subset of the disease-specific antibodies that
are generated once an infection has occurred.
Their role:
o They become special because they have the ability to thwart the entry of the
same virus inside human bodies in the future.
o The other antibodies help in fighting off the virus once the infection has
already happened.
Decline with time
o The neutralising antibodies, as also other antibodies, decrease with time.
o The rate of decline varies in different diseases and individuals.
o So, in the same time that people with low neutralising antibodies see their
immunity becoming ineffective, those with higher levels could still have
enough to continue to fend off the virus.
Q14. Consider the following statements with reference to Pradhan Mantri Matsya
Sampada Yojana” (PMMSY)
1. It aims to achieve fish production to 22 million metric tonnes (MMT) by 2024-25.
2. It aims to create an additional employment opportunity to 55 lakh people.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
Recently Indian PM launched the “Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana”
(PMMSY) at an estimated investment of Rs. 20,050 crores for a period of five years,
i.e., from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Objective:
o To achieve fish production to 22 million metric tonnes (MMT) by 2024-25
o Also to create an additional employment opportunity to about 55 lakh
people.
Components: The new scheme provides thrust for infusing new and emerging
technologies in fisheries and aquaculture to
o Enhance production and productivity,
o Welfare of fishers and fish farmers,
o Creating a conducive environment for private sector participation,
o Development of entrepreneurship,
o Promotion of ease of doing business,
o Innovations and innovative project activities including start-ups, incubators
etc.
Q15. ‘One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance’, recently in news,
was launched by
a) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
b) World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE)
c) World Health Organization (WHO)
d) All of the above
Solution : d)
Explanation :-
One Health Global Leaders Group on Antimicrobial Resistance:
Launched by the three global organisations: Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO), World Organisation for Animal Health (OIE) and the World Health
Organization (WHO).
Members: This 20-member group comprises heads of states, current and former
ministers of different countries, leaders from the private sector and civil society. Ex-
officio members – Heads of FAO, OIE and WHO.
Chaired by: It is co-chaired by the prime ministers of Barbados and Bangladesh,
respectively. The group will meet twice a year.
Objective:
o The group will harness the leadership and influence of these world-renowned
figures to catalyze global attention and action to preserve antimicrobial
medicines.
o This will help in averting the disastrous consequences of antimicrobial
resistance.
o The group has to
Monitor the global response to antimicrobial resistance;
Maintain public momentum;
Provide regular reports on the science and evidence related to AMR
to the UN member states;
Advocate for the inclusion of AMR in investments on agriculture,
health, development, food and feed production; and
Push for multi-stakeholder engagement on the issue.
Q16. Consider the following statements with respect to the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan(UBA)
1. It is a flagship national programme of the Ministry of Human Resource Development
(MHRD), Government of India launched in 2015.
2. IIT Delhi is the National Coordinating Institute on behalf of the UBA.
3. It envisions to bring Transformational change in rural development processes by
leveraging knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) All of the above
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
About the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA):
1. It is a flagship national programme of the Ministry of Human Resource Development
(MHRD), Government of India launched in 2014.
2. IIT Delhi is the National Coordinating Institute on behalf of the UBA.
3. Vision: Transformational change in rural development processes by leveraging
knowledge institutions to help build the architecture of an Inclusive India.
4. The Centre for Rural Development Technology (CRDT) as well as the RuTAG (Rural
Technology Action Group) of IIT Delhi are fully participating in the Unnat Bharat
Abhiyan activities.
1. CRDT at IIT Delhi is one of the renowned academic units established in 1979.
The centre functions as an outreach centre to address challenges faced by
rural communities and to improve their quality of life.
5. It has also identified a few rural clusters for direct intervention and is in the process
of networking with various participating institutions and voluntary organizations.
6. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan 2.0 was launched in April, 2018 and targeted to cover 605
institutions.
1. Out of these 313 are technical Institutions and 292 are Non-Technical
Institutions.
Q17. Consider the following statements about Time Use Survey:
1. It measures participation of men and women in paid and unpaid activities.
2. It doesn not measure time spent on learning, socializing, leisure activities, self-care
activities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : a)
Explanation :-
The “Time Use Survey” (TUS)
It provides a framework for measuring time dispositions by the population on
different activities.
The TUS, which collects comprehensive information on all human activities,
provides improved estimates of the workforce as well as shed light on important
characteristics of the workforce.
Objectives:
o To measure participation of men and women in paid and unpaid activities.
o To measure the time spent in unpaid care-giving activities, volunteer work,
unpaid domestic service producing activities of the household members.
o To measure time spent on learning, socializing, leisure activities, self-care
activities, etc., by the household members. 2 is incorrect.
Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. Radicalisation has been defined legally by the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act
1967.
2. The Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) is under the Ministry of
Home Affairs.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : b)
Explanation :-
Radicalisation:
Sensitive issue: Radicalisation is both a religious issue and a policing issue. In India,
people are sensitive about religion. There is a need for correct interpretation of holy
books such as the Quran, Gita or Bible.
No legal definition: Radicalisation has not been defined legally and this leads to
misuse by the police.
Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D)
The Government of India formally established the Bureau of Police Research and
Development (BPR&D), under the Ministry of Home Affairs for the following reasons and
with the primary objective of modernization of police force:
1. To take direct and active interest in the issues.
2. To promote a speedy and systematic study of the police problems.
3. To apply science and technology in the methods and techniques used by police.
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