21 JAN CURRENT AFFAIRS (MCQ)

Q1. With reference to ‘‘YUKTI 2.0 portal’’, consider the following statements:

1. It fosters the culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in academic institutions.
2. It is a portal launched by The Ministry of Commerce and Industries.
3. It will aid into government’s call of self-reliance (Aatma-Nirbhar Bharat) Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 and 3 only
   c) 1 only
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : a) Explanation :-
YUKTI 2.0 is an extension of ‘YUKTI (Young India combating Covid with Knowledge, Technology and Innovation) Portal’ which was launched to identify ideas relevant in Covid pandemic.
• The Ministry of Human Resource Development has launched an initiative ‘YUKTI 2.0’ to help systematically assimilate technologies having commercial potential and information related to incubated startups in higher education institutions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
• The Ministry has invited students, faculty members, startups and other stakeholders of higher education institutions to register on the YUKTI portal and share their technologies and innovations.
• Ministry acknowledges that YUKTI 2.0 initiative is a very important step in mission of making Bharat Atmanirbhar. In line with Atmanirbhar Bharat, YUKTI 2.0 will also help in fostering the culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in academic institutions. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements about annular solar eclipse or Ring of fire.

1. It happens when the moon while orbiting the Earth, comes in between the Sun and the Earth
2. It occurs when moon is nearest from earth Choose the correct options
   a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a) Explanation :-
An eclipse happens when the moon while orbiting the Earth, comes in between the sun and the Earth, due to which the moon blocks the sun’s light from reaching the Earth, Hence statement 1 is correct causing an eclipse of the sun or a solar eclipse. There are three types of eclipses: one is a total solar eclipse, which is visible only from a small area on Earth. According to NASA, people who are able to view the total solar eclipse are in the centre of the moon’s shadow as and when it hits the Earth. A total solar eclipse happens when the sun, moon and Earth are in a direct line.
The second type of a solar eclipse is a partial solar, in which the shadow of the moon appears on a small part of the sun. The third kind is an annular solar eclipse, which happens when the

moon is farthest from the Earth, which is why it seems smaller. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. In this type of an eclipse, the moon does not block the sun completely, but looks like a “dark disk on top of a larger sun-colored disk” forming a “ring of fire”.
Furthermore, during a solar eclipse the moon casts two shadows on the Earth, the first one is called the umbra, which gets smaller as it reaches the Earth. The second one is called the penumbra, which gets larger as it reaches the Earth. According to NASA, people standing in the umbra see a total eclipse and those standing in the penumbra see a partial eclipse. One of the reasons that NASA studies solar eclipses is to study the top layer of the sun called the corona. During an annular eclipse, NASA uses ground and space instruments to view this top layer when the sun’s glare is blocked by the moon

Q3. Consider the following in regard to the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA):

1. The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a non-statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
2. NTCA has mandate within the ambit of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
3. ‘Project Tiger’ is a Central Sector Scheme of the under ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
   Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 Only
   b) 1 and 2 Only
   c) 1 and 3 Only
   d) All of the above

Solution : c) Explanation :-
The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, as amended in 2006. Hence statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct.
Project Tiger’ is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the under ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change, providing funding support to tiger range States, for in-situ conservation of tigers in designated tiger reserve. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

Q4. With reference to the Border Area Development Programme, consider the following statements:

1. The Ministry of Defence has been implementing it as part of a comprehensive approach to border management.
2. It was initiated in the border areas of the western region during the Seventh Five Year Plan period (1985-90).
   Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
   a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : a) Explanation :-

• The Department of Border Management, Ministry of Home Affairs has been implementing the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) through the State Governments as part of a comprehensive approach to Border Management. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
• It was initiated in the border areas of the western region during the Seventh Five Year Plan period (1985-90) for ensuring balanced development of border areas. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Q5. With reference to mission Purvodaya, consider the following statements: 1. It was launched by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern

2. It will ease the setup of Green field steel plants.
3. It will help in India’s march towards a $5trillion economy.
   Which of the above statements is/are correct?
   a) 1 and 2
   b) 2 and 3
   c) 1 and 3
   d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : b) Explanation :-
Mission Purvodaya was launched by the Ministry of Steel. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. It was launched in 2020 for the accelerated development of eastern India through the establishment of an integrated steel hub in Kolkata, West Bengal.
The focus will be on eastern states of India (Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal) and northern part of Andhra Pradesh which collectively hold approximately 80% of the country’s iron ore, and significant portion of chromite, bauxite and dolomite reserves.
The Integrated Steel Hub would focus on 3 key elements:

1. Capacity addition through easing the setup of Greenfield steel plants. Development of steel clusters near integrated steel plants as well as demand centres.
2. Transformation of logistics and utilities infrastructure which would change the socio- economic landscape in the East.
3. The objective of this hub would be to enable swift capacity addition and improve overall competitiveness of steel producers both in terms of cost and quality.
   It will ease the set-up of Greenfield steel plants. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
   In achieving India’s objective of becoming a $5 trillion economy, the eastern states can play a major role where the steel sector can become the catalyst. Thus, the mission will help in India’s march towards a $5 trillion economy. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Q6. To strengthen economic cooperation, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has put in place a revised Framework on Currency Swap Arrangement for the period 2019 to 2022 for which of the following organisation?
a) SAARC Countries
b) European Union
c) Organisation for Economic, Cooperation Development (OECD)
d) BIMSTEC Countries

Solution : a)

Explanation :-
• To further economic cooperation within the SAARC region, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has put in place a revised Framework on Currency Swap Arrangement for SAARC countries for the period 2019 to 2022. A currency swap between countries is an agreement to exchange currencies with predetermined terms and conditions.
• Under the framework for 2019-22, RBI will continue to offer swap arrangement within the overall corpus of $2 billion. The RBI would enter into bilateral swap agreements with SAARC central banks, who want to avail swap facility.
• The withdrawals can be made in US Dollar, Euro or Indian Rupee.The Currency Swap Facility will be available to all SAARC member countries, subject to their signing the bilateral swap agreements.

Q7. Consider the following statements about the pardoning power enjoyed by the Executives of India

1. The President is the only authority in India to pardon a death sentence.
2. The President while exercising this power sits as a court of appeal.
3. The Governor of a state can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence of any person convicted of any offence against a state law. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect?
   a) 1 and 3 only
   b) 2 Only
   c) All of the above
   d) None of the above

Solution : b) Explanation :- Pardoning power of the president
Article 72 of the Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted of any offence in all cases where the:

1. Punishment or sentence is for an offence against a Union Law; 2. Punishment or sentence is by a court martial (military court); and
2. Sentence is a sentence of death.
   The pardoning power of the President is independent of the Judiciary, it is an executive power. But, the President while exercising this power, does not sit as a court of appeal. The object of conferring this power on the President is two-fold:
3. to keep the door open for correcting any judicial errors in the operation of law; and,
4. to afford relief from a sentence, which the President regards as unduly harsh.
   Comparing Pardoning Powers of President and Governor President (Article 72) Governor (Article 161)

• He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence of any person convicted of any offence against a Central law.
• He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the punishment or sentence of any person convicted of any offence against a state law.
• He cannot pardon a death sentence. Even if a state law prescribes for the death sentence, the power to grant pardon lies
• He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute a death sentence. He is the only authority to pardon a death sentence.
• He can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court).

with the President and not the governor. But, the governor can suspend, remit or commute a death sentence.
• He does not possess any such power.

Q8. The Global Risks Report, 2021, recently in news, is released by
a) World Health Organization (WHO)
b) United Nations (UN)
c) World Bank (WB)
d) World Economic Forum (WEF)

Solution : d) Explanation :-
According to the Global Risks Report, 2021 released virtually by World Economic Forum (WEF) recently, infectious diseases topped the global risks chart, displacing climate change.

Q9. Consider the following statements:

1. According to faecal sludge and septage management (FSSM) report about 60% of urban households rely on onsite sanitation systems.
2. Universal access to toilets was achieved in urban India with the construction of 66 lakh household toilets and more than 6 lakh community and public toilets. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c) Explanation :-
NITI Aayog released a book on faecal sludge and septage management (FSSM) in urban areas.
• Jointly developed with National Faecal Sludge and Septage Management (NFSSM) Alliance, the book presents 27 case studies across 10 states and various service and business models adopted by Indian cities while implementing FSSM initiatives.
• The report mentions that about 60% of urban households rely on onsite sanitation systems, which require dedicated planning for management of waste collected in these systems’ containment structures.
• Accordingly, FSSM planning prioritizes human excreta management, a waste stream with a high potential for spreading diseases.

• Considering the importance of FSSM solutions, the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs came up with the national policy on FSSM in 2017. More than 24 states have adopted it and 12 of them have come up with their own policies.’
• Universal access to toilets was achieved in urban India with the construction of 66 lakh household toilets and more than 6 lakh community and public toilets.
• After achieving the target of ‘Open-Defecation-Free’ (ODF), India has now moved towards becoming ODF+ and ODF++. These targets go beyond the concept of access to sanitation and aim for safely managed sanitation systems, with adequate treatment and safe disposal of toilet waste.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q10. The proposed Ratle Hydro Electric (HE) Project will be located on which of the following river?
a) Yamuna
b) Chenab
c) Ravi
d) Ganga

Solution : b) Explanation :-
The Union Cabinet has given its approval for the investment of Rs.5281.94 crore for 850 MW Ratle Hydro Electric (HE) Project.
• It will be located on river Chenab, in Kishtwar district of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
• It will be implemented by a new Joint Venture Company (JVC) to be incorporated between
National Hydroelectric Power Corporation (NHPC) and Jammu & Kashmir State Power Development Corporation Ltd (JKSPDC) with equity contribution of 51% and 49% respectively. • The Ratle Hydro Electric Project shall be commissioned within a span of 60 months.
• The Power generated from the Project will help in providing balancing of Grid and will improve the power supply position.
• Further, Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir will be benefitted by getting free power worth Rs. 5289 crore and through levy of Water Usage Charges worth Rs.9581 crore from Ratle Hydro Electric Project, during project life cycle of 40 years. • Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q11. Implementing Agreement on Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation was recently signed between the Navies of India and:
a) Malaysia
b) China
c) Pakistan
d) Singapore

Solution : d) Explanation :-
The 5th Defence Ministers’ Dialogue (DMD) between India and Singapore was successfully held on 20 January 2021 through a video conference.

• At this 5th DMD, both Ministers witnessed the signing of the Implementing Agreement on Submarine Rescue Support and Cooperation between the two Navies.
• The Ministers further welcomed the implementing agreement on Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) cooperation in August 2020 for the two Armed Forces to have closer operational collaboration in response to disasters.
• The Ministers were pleased that the Indian Navy and Singapore Navy successfully conducted the 27th edition of Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise (SIMBEX) and also participated in the second edition of the Singapore-India-Thailand Maritime Exercise (SITMEX); both held in November 2020.
• Rajnath Singh reaffirmed ASEAN centrality in the regional security architecture and pledged India’s support to all endeavours of the ASEAN Defence Ministers’ Meeting (ADMM)-Plus.
• The cyber agencies of both armed forces have also stepped up engagements.
• Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q12. With reference to the Geo-Hazard management, consider the following statements:

1. Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has recently entered into a framework MoU with the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (MoRTH) to strengthen collaboration on sustainable Geo-Hazard management.
2. DRDO’s Defence Geo-Informatics Research Establishment (DGRE) is working for the development of critical technologies for enhancing combat effectiveness in various kinds of terrains and avalanches.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   a) 1 Only
   b) 2 Only
   c) Both 1 and 2
   d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c) Explanation :-
Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has entered into a framework MoU with the Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (MoRTH) to strengthen collaboration on sustainable Geo-Hazard management.
• DRDO’s Defence Geo-Informatics Research Establishment (DGRE) is working for the development of critical technologies for enhancing combat effectiveness in various kinds of terrains and avalanches.
• MoRTH is responsible for development & maintenance of National Highways across the country.
• It has been agreed that the expertise of DGRE will be utilized in providing sustainable mitigation measures to damages caused by landslides, avalanche and other natural factors on various National Highways in the Country.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q13. With reference to the optical ground wire (OPGW), consider the following statements:

1. It is a type of cable that is used in overhead power lines.
2. The cable contains a tubular structure having one or more optical fiber and surrounded by layers of aluminium and steel wires.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution : c) Explanation :-
To improve telecom connectivity in hilly areas, Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID), has recently signed an agreement with Himachal Pradesh State Electricity Board Ltd. (HPSEBL) in Shimla (H.P.) for utilization of 500 Kms of OPGW Telecom network.
• Through this OPGW Network, Telecom Service providers will be able to provide uninterrupted mobile/Internet services to the people of the state.
• An optical ground wire is also known as an OPGW or, in the IEEE standard, an optical fiber composite overhead ground wire.
• It is a type of cable that is used in overhead power lines. Such cable combines the functions of grounding and communications.
• OPGW is optical fiber composite ground wire. This cable contains a tubular structure having one or more optical fiber and surrounded by layers of aluminium and steel wires.
• This layer of aluminium and steel wires serves to connect the tower to the ground. The optical fiber within the cable is used for the high speed data telemetry between the utilities or sold to some third parties for high speed fiber interconnection between the cities.
• POWERGRID, a ‘Maharatna’ CPSE under Ministry of Power, Government of India and Central Transmission Utility (CTU) of India, is India’s principal power transmission company and also one of the largest power transmission utilities in the world.
• Hence both statements are correct.

Q14. Which of the following country is world’s largest producer and exporter of dragon fruit?
a) Vietnam
b) China
c) India
d) U.S.A

Solution : a) Explanation :-
The Gujarat government has decided to rename the dragon fruit as ‘kamalam’.
• Dragon fruit is the fruit of a species of wild cactus indigenous to South and Central America, where it is called pitaya or pitahaya.
• The fruit’s flesh is usually white or red — although there is a less common yellow pitaya too — and is studded with tiny seeds rather like the kiwifruit.
• The world’s largest producer and exporter of dragon fruit is Vietnam, where the plant was brought by the French in the 19th century. The Vietnamese call it thanh long, which translates to “dragon’s eyes”, believed to be the origin of its common English name.
• Dragon fruit is also cultivated in — apart from its native Latin America — Thailand, Taiwan, China, Australia, Israel, and Sri Lanka.

• It was brought to India in the 1990s, and is grown in Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Odisha, West Bengal, Andhra Pradesh, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It grows in all kinds of soil, and does not require much water.
• According to Chief Minister Vijay Rupani, the fruit’s outer shape resembles a lotus, which is also the election symbol of the BJP. The word ‘kamalam’ is a Sanskrit word and the shape of the fruit does resemble the lotus flower.
• “We have applied for a patent of the dragon fruit to be called ‘kamalam’, Mr. Rupani said at the launch of the Chief Minister Horticulture Development Mission, a scheme to promote horticulture in unproductive land parcels.
• Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q15. Which of the following are tributaries of River Yamuna?

1. Chambal
2. Sindh
3. Betwa
4. Ken
   Select the correct code
   a) 1 and 2 only
   b) 3 and 4 only
   c) All of the above
   d) None of the above

Solution : c) Explanation :- Yamuna
• The river Yamuna, a major tributary of river Ganges, originates from the Yamunotri glacier near Bandarpoonch peaks in the Mussoorie range of the lower Himalayas in Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand.
• It meets the Ganges at the Sangam in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh after flowing through Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Delhi.
• Important Dam: Lakhwar-Vyasi Dam (Uttarakhand), Tajewala Barrage Dam (Haryana) etc.
• Important Tributaries: Chambal, Sindh, Betwa, Ken, Tons, Hindon.

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